For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org GMAT Quantitative test 1 37 Questions 75 minutes These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. 1. Roy is now 4 years older than Erik and half of that amount older than Iris. If in 2 years, Roy will be twice as old as Erik, then in 2 years what would be Roy’s age multiplied by Iris’s age? (a) 8 (b) 28 (c) 48 (d) 50 (e) 52 2. An investment yields an interest payment of $228 each month. If the simple annual interest rate is 9%, what is the amount of the investment? (a) $28,300 (b) $30,400 (c) $31,300 (d) $32,500 (e) $35,100 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 3. X, Y, Z, and W are integers. The expression X-Y-Z is even and the Expression Y-Z-W is odd. If X is even what must be true? (a) Y-Z must be odd. (b) W must be even. (c) W must be odd. (d) W must be even. (e) Z must be odd 4. X Y X and Y are two sides of a triangle, is the area of the triangle an integer? (1) X is a prime number. (2) Y is an odd integer. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 5. Fuel tanker A can fill the underground reservoir in 12 minutes. How long will it take fuel tanker A and fuel tanker B to fill up the same reservoir together? (1) The reservoir contains 3000 liters of fuel. (2) Fuel tanker B alone will require the same number of hours to fill the same reservoir. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 6. Q is a prime number bigger than 10. What is the smallest positive number (except 1) that 3Q can be divided by equally? (a) 3Q. (b) Q (c) 3 (d) Q+3 (e) 2Q 7. In a box there are A green balls, 3A + 6 red balls and 2 yellow ones. If there are no other colors, what is the probability of taking out a green or a yellow ball? 1/5. ½. 1/3. ¼. 2/3. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 8. Kelly used to get a 30% discount on movie tickets. When the price of the movie ticket increased by 50%, the amount of discount in dollars remained the same. What is Kelly's discount with the new Ticket price in percent terms? (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 35% (e) 38% 9. Is the square root of A an integer? (1) The last digit of A is 8. (2) A is divisible by 6. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 10. If Q and T are integers, what is the value of Q? (1) Q = 2T/7. (2) 4)2(727+=+QT (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 11. In a psychology school the grade of the students is determined by the following method: At the end of the first year the grade equals to twice the age of the student. From then on, the grade is determined by twice the age of the student plus half of his grade from the previous year. If Joey’s grade at the end of the first year is 40, what will be his grade at the end of the third year? (a) 44. (b) 56. (c) 62. (d) 75. (e) 80. 12. A is a prime number (A>2). If C = A3, by how many different integers can C be equally divided? (a) 3. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) 7. ositive integer and (405) 4 is a multiple of 3X, what is the largest possible alue of X? ) 26. 4. X, Y>0, If X3 = Y, is Y a fraction? ) X2 is a fraction. ) X > Y. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 5. A turtle is crossing a field, how many meters total did he pass? ) The average speed of the turtle is 2 meters per minute. ter than his average speed it would ave finished the same path 40 minutes earlier. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (e 13. If X is a pv (a) 5. (b) 12. (c) 16. (d) 20. (e 1 (1 (2 (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 1 (1 (2) Had the turtle walked 1 meter per minute fash (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)bFor more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the eriod between 1990 and 2000. What was the value of the stock in the year 1998? ) In 1991, the value of the stock was 130 U.S dollars. ) In 1992, the value of the stock was 149.5 U.S dollars. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. s a prime number bigger than 5. Which of the following expressions must be ven? . 2). ) (N – 2)2. ed the price by 0%, and the car was finally sold. What price was the car sold for? (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTquestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 16. The net value of a certain stock increased at a constant rate during the ten-year p (1 (2 (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 17. N ie (a) (N+2)2(b) N2+2. (c) N(N+2). (d) (N+1)(N+(e 18. The original price of a car was $25,200. Because the car owner thought he couldget more money for the car, he increased the price of the car to 110% of its original price. After a week, the car had not sold, so the owner then discount1 (a) $25,200 (b) $25,000 (c) $24,948 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) $23,658 iles. How many inches would be necessary to present a distance of 383.6 miles? ) 28.7 . If mmers quit, how many more days are needed to finish the mainder of the job? ) 8. 5 y double their speeds, what is the distance that Tim will pass ntil he meets Élan? ) 65 miles. d the planet Pluto. How many full rotations can e spaceship complete in 20 hours. ) The radius of a single rotation is 21,000 miles. ) The spaceship travels at 35 miles per second. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. (d) $24,542 (e 19. On a map, 1 inch represents 28 mre (a) 5.2 (b) 7.4 (c) 13.7 (d) 21.2 (e 20. 15 Java programmers, working in a constant pace, finish a web page in 3 daysafter one day, 9 prograre (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (e 21. Tim and Élan are 90 miles away from one another. They are starting to move towards each other simultaneously, Tim at a speed of 10 Mph and Élan at a speed of Mph. If every hour theu (a) 30 miles. (b) 35 miles. (c) 45 miles. (d) 60 miles. (e 22. A spaceship in orbit rotates arounth (1 (2 (a) Statement (1)bFor more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 23. Is X > Y? (1) 12X = 4C. (2) C = 3Y4. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 24. What is the circumference of circle O? (1) The circle inscribes a square. (2) The perimeter of the square is 10. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 25. In a rectangular coordinate system, what is the area of a triangle whose vertices have the coordinates (4, 0), (6, 3), and (6, -3)? (a) 7.5 (b) 7 (c) 6.5 (d) 6 (e) 5.5 26. For every X, the action [X] is defined: [X] is the greatest integer less than or equal to X. What is the value of [6.5] x [2/3] + [2] x 7.2 + [8.4] – 6.6? (a) 12.6. (b) 14.4. (c) 15.8. (d) 16.2. (e) 16.4. 27. What is the decimal equivalent of ()514? (a) 0.0032 (b) 0.032 (c) 0.00625 (d) 0.003125 (e) 0.0016 28. How many four-digit numbers that do not contain the digits 3 or 6 are there? (a) 2401 (b) 3584 (c) 4096 (d) 5040 (e) 7200 29. How many of the girls in a group of 200 children have an average score of 80 in their final exams? (1) 45% of the children have an average score of 80 in their final exams. (2) 50% of the children in the group are girls. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 30. A paint shop sells spray cans at a flat charge of 50 cents per can. If a customer bought 10 cans and the owner decided to give that customer a special discount on the last two cans, what was the price of the two discounted cans? (1) The customer paid four dollars and twenty cents total for the ten cans. (2) The customer bought the ten cans for an average price of 42 cents per can. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 31. Does the product of XYZW = 16? (1) Y = 1. (2) X = 4Y and ZW = 4Y2 (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 32. The telephone company wants to add an area code composed of 2 letters to every phone number. In order to do so, the company chose a special sign language containing 124 different signs. If the company used 122 of the signs fully and two remained unused, how many additional area codes can be created if the company uses all 124 signs? (a) 246 (b) 248 (c) 492 (d) 15,128 (e) 30,256 33. The average (arithmetic mean) of seven numbers is 12.2. If the sum of four of these numbers is 42.8, what is the average of the other 3 numbers? (a) 12.4 (b) 14.2 (c) 16.8 (d) 18.6 (e) 19.2 34. If A = 2B, is A4 > B4? (1) A2 = 4B2. (2) 2A + B < A/2 + B. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 35. 5 numbers are randomly chosen. If their average is 20, how many of the numbers are larger than 15? (1) One of the numbers is 15. (2) The average of three of the numbers is 15. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 36. A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability of getting exactly three red hats or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next? (a) 1/8 (b) ¼ (c) ½ (d) 3/8 (e) 7/12 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 37. If 4XZ + YW = 3 and XW + YZ = 6, what is the value of the expression (2X + Y)(2Z + W)? (a) 9. (b) 12. (c) 15. (d) 16. (e) 18. Answers and Explanations: 1. Translate piece by piece into numbers. R (Roy) = Erik (E) + 4. The second equation: R = I (Iris)+ 2. The third equation: R +7 = 2(E + 7). We have three equations with three variables. Roy is 6, Iris is 4 and Erik is 2. In four years Erik would be 6 and Iris 8, the answer is 48. The correct answer is C. 2. Principal × percent interest × time = interest earned Principle × (0.09)× 1/12 = $228. Solve to find the principal (228 × 12)/0.09= $30,400. The correct answer is B. 3. The first expression is even and the second is odd, the only difference between the expressions is that the first expression has X and the second has W. So, if X is even W must be odd and the correct answer is C. 4. The area of the triangle is XY/2. Statement (1) tells us that X is a prime number, that can be even (2) or odd (3, 5, 7, etc.). Statement (2) tells us that Y is an odd integer. The multiplication of X and Y can be an odd number or an even number, thus we cannot determine if the area of the triangle is an integer or not. The correct answer is E. 5. Statement (1) is insufficient since the size of the reservoir is irrelevant. Statement (2) is sufficient since it tells us that the second tanker has the same work rate as the first. So, it will take them both half the time it took the first tanker alone. The correct answer is B. 6. 3Q is a prime number so it can be divide equally by 3Q, by 1 and by the components 3 and Q. The smallest number therefore is 3. The correct answer is C. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 7. The number of green and yellow balls in the box is A+2. The total number of balls is 4A +8. The probability of taking out a green or a yellow ball is: 41842=++AA. The correct answer is D. 8. The price of the ticket is unknown. It would be most convenient to plug in 100 as the price of the ticket. A 30% discount of 100 is $30, that amount remained the same after the price of a ticket increased by 50%. The new price of a ticket is $150, so 30/150 is 20%. The correct answer is B. 9. If you square each digit {0, 1, 2,..., 8, 9}, you will see that the possible last digits for a square are 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 and 9. Thus, if the last digit of A is 8, A cannot be a square and the square root of A is not an integer. Statement (1) by itself is sufficient. Statement (2) by itself is insufficient since there are numbers that are divisible by 6 and have an integer square root and numbers divisible by 6 that do not have an integer square root. The correct answer is A. 10. We want to find the number value of Q. In statement (1) we are given the ratio between Q and T, which is not sufficient. Statement (2) can be simplified: 277277214774)2(727QTQTQTQT=⇒+=+⇒+=+⇒+=+. We can see that the same ratio is given in statement (2) also and more data is required to answer the question. Both statements give the same information. The correct answer is E. 11. From the grade 40 at the end of the first year we learn that his age is 20. At the end of the second year, he will be 21 and his grade will be (21 x 2 + ½ x 40 = 62). At the end of the third year, he will be 22 and his grade will be (22 x 2 + ½ x 62 = 75). The correct answer is D. 12. Factorize C: C = A x A x A: C can be equally divided into 1, A, A2, and A3 =C 4 numbers total. The correct answer is B. 13. Find the factors of (405) 4 and see what the largest value of X can be. 405 = 81 x 5 = 9 x 9 x 5 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 5 (405) 4 = (3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 5) 4 = 316 x 54. The largest possible value of 3X that is still a factor of (405) 4 is the largest possible value of X and that is 316. X = 16. The correct answer is C. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 14. Statement (1) is sufficient. If X2 is a fraction, X must also be a fraction. Meaning that X3 and Y will also be fractions. Statement (2) is sufficient. If X3 is a fraction then X must be greater than X3, which is also equal to Y. We get that from X > Y, so X3 and Y are fractions. The correct answer is D. 15. Statement (1) gives us the average speed of the turtle; this statement is insufficient since the time is not given. Statement (2) is also insufficient by itself since we don’t know what the average speed is. Both statements combined are sufficient since we can calculate the distance 2*T=D and 3(T-40)=D, solve to get D=240 meters. The correct answer is C. 16. We are told that the stock increases its value by a constant rate and therefore we need to find some kind of pattern in order to know the value every year. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient since they give us the percent increase of the stock from 1991 to 1992, which is 15%. The value of the stock in 1998 can be easily calculated, add 15% every year until 1998. The correct answer is C. 17. Answer D is a multiplication of two consecutive numbers, therefore one of them must be even, and an even number multiplied by a different number is an even number. The correct answer is D. 18. 25,200 x 1.1 = 27,720. 27,720 x 0.9 = 24,948. The correct answer is C. 19. Dividing the requested amount of miles by the reference amount would give us the answer in inches. 383.6 /28 = 13.7 inches. The correct answer is C. 20. The total working days for finishing a web page are (15 x 3) 45. If after one day 9 programmers quit, only 15 working days are done and the rest of the programmers (6) Need to finish (45 – 15) 30 days of work. It will take them 5 more days. The correct answer is C. 21. Tim is traveling at twice the speed of Élan, and so will be after they double their speeds. The ratio between their velocities will always be 2:1 and the ratio between the distances they will pass will also be 2:1 or 60 miles to 30 miles. Tim will go through 60 miles. The correct answer is D. 22. In order to calculate the time it would take to complete one rotation, you need the radius and the velocity. Statement (1) provides the radius of rotation and (2) provides the velocity. The distance the spaceship has to travel in order to complete one rotation is )000,21(22⋅⋅=⋅⋅ππR and the speed is 35 miles per second. Divide the first by the second and you’ll get the time it would take the spaceship to complete one rotation. The correct answer is C. 23. Since we need to compare between X and Y, look at both statements together. (1) and (2) state that: 12X = 4C = 12Y4 X = Y4. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Take Y=-1, X=1: X is bigger than Y. Take X=1 and Y=1: X is not bigger than Y. The answer is not distinct and therefore more data is required in order to solve the question. The correct answer E. 24. If a circle inscribers a square then the diagonal of the square is the diameter of the circle, which is sufficient to find the perimeter. Statement (1) tells us about the square that is inscribed with out any further data. Statement (2) gives us the perimeter, which is equal to 4 times the side of the square. If we know the side of the square, we know its diagonal. Both statements, taken together, are sufficient. The correct answer is C. 25. Draw the x and y-axes, then plot the points and connect them. The length of the base is 6 units [from (6, 3) to (6, -3)] and the height is 2 units [from (6, 0) to (4, 0)]. Area of a triangle = (base × height) /2, so (6 × 2)/2 is 6. The correct answer is D. 26. [6.5] x [2/3] + [2] x 7.2 + [8.4] – 6.6 = 6 x 0 + 2 x 7.2 + 8 -6.6 = 15.8. The correct answer is C. 27. ()()0.001610161021025144444=×===−. The correct answer is E. 28. The first digit has 7 possibilities (10 – 0,3 and 6). The other three digits have 8 possibilities each. 7*8*8*8= 3584. The correct answer is B. 29. From (1) by itself we can only learn that 90 kids have good grades. This statement is insufficient. From (2) we can learn that there are 100 girls in the group. Combining the statements doesn’t help much since we know nothing about the overlapping of (1) and (2) and more data is required. The correct answer is E. 30. Statement (1) tells us that 10 cans cost 4.2 dollars instead of 5 dollars and therefore the last two cans were sold for 20 cents. This statement is sufficient. Statement (2) also tells us that the entire amount of cans cost 4.2 and therefore this statement is also sufficient. The correct answer is D. 31. From (1) we know the value of Y only, which is 1. From (2) and (1) we know the value of all the other parameters, X = 4 and ZW = 4. Therefore, (1) and (2) together are sufficient. The correct answer is C. 32. The phone company already created 122*122 area codes, now it can create 124*124. 1242-1222=(124+122)(124-122) = 246*2 = 492 additional codes. The correct answer is C. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 33. If the average of 7 numbers is 12.2, we can solve for their sum: 7 × 12.2 = 85.4. If four of these numbers total 42.8, then by subtracting 42.8 from 85.4, we get the sum of the other three numbers, 42.6. To find the average of these three numbers, we divide their sum by their number: 42.6/3 = 14.2. The correct answer is B. 34. Statement (1) is insufficient. Take A=0 and B=0, (1) is correct yet A4 is not bigger than B4. Take different numbers, A=6 and B=12 A4 is larger than B4. Statement (2) is sufficient. The only possible way that A will not be larger than B is if they are both zero. (2) Claims that A < 0 and therefore A cannot be zero and this statement is sufficient, A4 is bigger than B4. The correct answer is B. 35. Lets look at two cases, where each one will give out different results. One of the numbers is 15 and three more are 15, 15 and 15 (with an average of 15). The sum of all the numbers should be (20 x 5 = 100). The sum of the numbers we picked up is (15 x 4 = 60) and therefore the last number should be 40 which is greater than 15. The answer in this case is 1. Take another case: One of the numbers is 15 and three more are 14, 15 and 16 (with an average of 15). In this case there will be 2 numbers over 15. More data is required. The correct answer is E. 36. Getting three red out of 4 that are taken out has 4 options (4!/(3!*1!)) each option has a probability of (1/2)4 since drawing a red or blue has a 50% chance. 4*1/16= ¼ to get three red hats. The same goes for three blue hats so ¼+¼ =1/2. The correct answer is C. 37. (2X + Y)(2Z + W) = 4XZ + 2XW + 2ZY + WY. Now, plug in this data to get: 3 + 2 x 6 = 15. The correct answer is C. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org GMAT Quantitative test 2 37 Questions 75 minutes These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 1. X is an even number and Y is a positive odd number. Which of the following expressions cannot be even? (a) (XY) Y (b) X3Y3 (c) X3 (d) XY (e) Y2 2. How much interest will $2,400 earn at an annual rate of 8% in one year if the interest is compounded every 4 months? (a) $141 (b) $150 (c) $197 (d) $234 (e) $312 3. What is the value of P? (1) P is even. (2) P is a square of a prime number. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 4. If AB = 40, what is the value of AB(A + 2B)? For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (1) A – B = -18. (2) A2B = 80. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 5. If X3Y = 24, what is the value of (X3Y3 – X2Y2)? (1) X2Y2 = 36. (2) X3Y2 = 72. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 6. X is a prime number bigger than 10. Also, Y = X+X3+X5+X7.For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org What is definitely true about Y? (a) Y is a prime number. (b) Y is odd. (c) Y is even. (d) Y is divisible by 3. (e) Y is divisible by 7. 7. What is the least integer that is a sum of four different primes each greater than 20? (a) 79 (b) 83 (c) 120 (d) 133 (e) 169 8. If X>X, the average of X and Y is Z, and the average of Z and X is W, what is the value of ?=−−ywwx (a) 41 (b) 31 (c) 21 (d) 3 (e) 4 9. One quarter of the workers at the factory are clerical, one fifth are technical, half are administrative and the other 25 are managerial. How many workers total are there in the factory? (a) 250 (b) 366 (c) 400 (d) 500 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) 2500 10. The price of a product is $a. Bill bought s products and then sold 80 percents of them $b. which of the following represents the whole deal if Bill’s profit was three times the cost? (a) 0.8sb = 4sa. (b) (1-0.8)s –ab = 3s. (c) 3(0.8a – sb) = sa. (d) (s-0.8s)(b-a) = 3. (e) (s0.8s) /(b-a) = 3. 11. X equals to Y% of what number? (1) X = 3Y. (2) 6Y+2X = 56X/14. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 12. Which expression is larger 1/(5 -X) or X/5? (1) X < 8. (2) X > -8. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 13. X is a two-digit number. If the ratio between the units digit and the tens digit is 1 to 2, what is the value of X? (1) The sum of the digits multiplied by the tens digit is 54. (2) The product of the digits divided by 2 is 9. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 14. A grocer bought 24Kg of coffee beans at price X. After a while one third of the stock got spoiled so he sold the rest for 200$ per Kilo and made a total profit of twice the cost. What must be price X? (a) 66 2/3$. (b) 50 1/3$. (c) 44 4/9$. (d) 33 1/3$. (e) 24 1/2$. 15. Kenny is three times older than Bob. In P years he will be twice older than Bob will be Q years later. Which of the following represents Kenny’s age comparing to Bob’s? (If X = Kenny’s age) (a) X + P = 6X(P+Q). (b) 2(X+P) = 3X + Q. (c) (X+P)/2 = X/3 + P + Q. (d) 3(X+P+Q) = 2X. (e) 3X = 2(P + Q). 16. A Cuban cigar would cost 1 dollar less than 1.5 times a French cigar, had the French cigar cost 0.7 dollar less than it does now. An Arabian cigar costs 50 cents more than 1.5 times the Cuban cigar. The three cigars together cost 74.7 dollars. What is the price of the French cigar? (a) 16.7$. (b) 23$. (c) 25.5$. (d) 35$. (e) 37.4$. 17. Ashley paid 5 dollars for 1 notebook and 1 pencil. If both prices were integers, how many pencils did Ashley buy if she paid 93 dollars for the pencils and for 15 notebooks? (a) 6. (b) 16. (c) 18. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (d) 21. (e) 26. 18. What percent is X of Y? (1) Y is bigger than 2X by 54. (2) X is smaller than 3Y by 72. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 19. A store bought Q windows at $150 per window and W shelves at $75 per shelve. What is the total price of the windows and the shelves? (1) The Q windows cost $600. (2) Q + W/2 = 12. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 20. What is the perimeter of a rectangle having an area of 60? (1) The length and width of the rectangle are even integers smaller than 25. (2) The length of the rectangle is larger than three times the width. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 21. X is a positive integer, is X even? (1) 9X2 is divisible by 4. (2) 3X + 2 is divisible by 8. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 22. The sum of the ages of 22 boys and 24 girls is 160.What is the sum of ages of one boy plus one girl, if all the boys are of the same age and all the girls are of the same age, and only full years are counted? (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. 23. X percents of the rooms are suits, and Y Percents of the rooms are painted light blue? Which of the following best represents the least Percentage of the light blue painted suits? (a) X-Y. (b) Y-X + 100. (c) 100X-Y. (d) X+Y-100. (e) 100-XY. 24. David bought 13 BMW cars for a total price of 1,105,000 dollars. If he wants to make a profit of 39,000 dollars in the deal, at what price should he sell one car? (a) 85,000$. (b) 88,000$. (c) 94,000$. (d) 124,000$. (e) 139,000$. 25. Loren bought a roll of cloth and sold it for a 5% profit based on the selling price. If Loren‘s profit was $45.5 total on the cloth, how much did it cost her to buy the cloth? (a) $455. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (b) $525.5. (c) $675. (d) $810.5. (e) $864.5. 26. X is a positive integer, is X even? (1) 9X2 is divisible by 4. (2) 3X + 2 is divisible by 8. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 27. If 10% of the employees of the state fare are police officers, what is the number of employees who are not police officers? (1) 5% of the police officers employed in the fare are woman. (2) 45% of the employees at the state fare are woman. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 28. In a recent tender, X people participated. 35% of the X people, who made an offer won the specific tender they participated in. 70% of the rest, were disappointed from the result of the tender. Which of the following expressions represents the number of people who weren’t disappointed although they didn’t win the tender? (a) 39X/200. (b) 25X/50. (c) 19.5X/200. (d) 35X/250. (e) 90X/200. 29. What is 0.01 x 5 x 0.03 in terms of percent? (a) 15% (b) 1.5% (c) 0.15% (d) 0.015% (e) 0.0015% 30. In a barrel of juice there is 30 liters; in a barrel of beer there are 80 liters. If the price ratio between a barrel of juice to a barrel of beer is 3:4, what is the price ratio between one liter of juice and one liter of beer? (a) 3:2. (b) 2:1. (c) 3:1. (d) 4:3. (e) 3:4. 31. Is X greater than 1? (1) X > X2. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (2) –X < -X2. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 32. What is the sum of 7 consecutive integers? (1) The median of the seven integers is 8. (2) One of the integers is 7. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 33. M is a positive integer, is M odd? (1) 2M3 + 2M is divisible by 8. (2) M + 10 is divisible by 10. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 34. From the starting point in a boat race, one competitor started to sail north at a speed of 1.6 Km/h, the other competitor started to sail west at a speed of 1.2 Km/h. What is the distance in Km between the two competitors after 5 hours? (a) 10. (b) 12. (c) 12.5. (d) 14. (e) 15.4. 35. George can fill Q cans of paint in 3 minutes. If there are R cans of paint in one gallon, how many gallons can George fill in 45 minutes? (a) 30R/Q. (b) 15R/Q. (c) 30Q/R. (d) 5Q/R. (e) 15Q/R. 36. If (4 # 2 = 14) and (2 # 3 = 6), what can replace (a # b)? (a) ab. (b) (a+3)b (c) a2 – b. (d) ab – 2. (e) ba + 1. 37. In a rectangular coordinate system, what is the square root of the area of a trapezoid whose vertices have the coordinates (2, -2), (2, 3), (20, 2), (20, -2)? (a) 7.5 (b) 9 (c) 10.22 (d) 12.25 (e) 14 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Answers and explanations: 1. The fastest way to solve this problem is by plugging in some numbers. Lets say: X = 2, Y = 1. According to answer e: 1 x 1 = 1 and that must be an odd number. The correct answer is E. 2. Here, it is enough to calculate the simple interest of 8% per year. $2,400 x 8/100 x 1 = $192. Since we are calculating as a compounded rate, the interest should be a bit higher, or C as the correct answer. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 3. Statement (1) alone is insufficient since there is infinite number of possibilities. Statement (2) alone is insufficient since there is an infinite number of primes. The combination of the statements is sufficient since the only even square of a prime number is can be 22, which is 4. Both statements, taken together, are sufficient. The correct answer is C. 4. Statement (1) alone is insufficient since we need the value of A + 2B. Statement (2) is sufficient. A2B = A(AB) = A(40) = 80 A=2 and B=20. Now, we know that A + 2B = 42 and we can calculate the required expression. The correct answer is B. 5. Statement (1) is insufficient since the expression given is only one of two needed. Statement (2) by itself is sufficient since X3Y2 = (X3Y)Y = 24Y = 72 Y = 3. If Y=3 then X3=8 and so X=2. The expression required is a combination of X and Y and is then calculable. The correct answer is B. 6. Because X is a prime number bigger than 10, it must be odd. Ignoring the powers of X in the expression of Y, you’ll see that Y is a sum of 4 odd numbers therefore it must be even. The correct answer is C. 7. Find the sum of the first 4 primes larger than 20: 23+29+31+37=120. The correct answer is C. 8. The best way is to take an example: Assume x=2 and y=10, then their average z=6. The average of x=2 and z=6 is w=4. Therefore: 316210442=−−=−−=−−ywwx. The correct answer is B. 9. First, calculate the fraction of the 25 managerial workers out of the total number of workers by subtracting the fractions given from 1. 2012019120104512151411=−=++−=−−−. The 25 managerial workers are 201of the workers, therefore, 5002025=×, a total number of 500 workers. The correct answer is D. 10. This statement is equivalent to 0.8sb – sa = 3sa. The income is 0.8sb, the cost is sa, so the profit is three times the cost. The correct answer is A. 11. From (1) we have X and Y and therefore we can find A easily, A = 300. (2) Is identical to (1), simplify it and see that it can be written as X = 3Y. Either statement by itself is sufficient. The correct answer is D. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 12. The easiest way to solve such a problem is to plug in numbers. Use both statements to see that they are both insufficient even together. Take X=0: 1/(5 – X) = 1/5 and X/5 = 0, in this case the first expression is larger. Take X=7: 1/(5 – X) = -1/2 and X/5 = 7/5, in this case the second expression is larger. We can see that the answer is dependent on which numbers we choose and more data is required in order to determine the answer. The correct answer is E. 13. There are a limited number of possibilities: 21, 42, 63 and 84. According to statement (1), the only number that is compatible is 63. According to statement (2), the only number that is compatible is also 63. Either statement alone is sufficient. The correct answer is D. 14. The total income is 16x200. The cost is 24X, and the total profit is 3200 – 24X = 48X. The correct answer is C. 15. X is Kenny’s age. X/3 is Bob’s age. Answer C is equivalent to (X+P) = 2(X/3+P+Q), which means that in P years, X+P is 2 times (X/3+P) plus Q years. The correct answer is C. 16. Sign the French cigar as X. The Cuban cigar is 1.5(X-0.7) -1. The Arabian cigar is 1.5[1.5(X-0.7)-1] + 0.5. The sum of all the three is 74.7. The correct answer is A. 17. One notebook can cost 1, 2, 3 or 4 dollars. Subtract 15 times each price from 93, and check if what you get is divisible by 5 minus the price of the notebook. The number could be 24, 21 or 33. The correct answer is D. 18. Statement (1) can be written as: Y = 2X + 54. Statement (2) can be written as: X = 3Y – 72. Combining both statements, we have two different equations containing X and Y and so we can solve and find the value of X and Y and calculate what is X percent of Y. The correct answer is C. 19. Statement (1) is all about the windows and therefore it is not sufficient by itself. Statement (2) tells us that Q + W/2 = 12, this is sufficient because the total price of windows and shelves is 150Q + 75W. Multiply the data in statement (2) be 150 to get: 150Q + 75W = 18,000. Statement (2) is sufficient by itself. The correct answer is B. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 20. The question tells you that the area is 60, the area of a rectangle is equal to length x width, in order to find the perimeter, one should find the value of the length and the value of the width. Statement (1) tells us that both the length and the width are even integers and therefore we know their exact values because 60 can be factorized to: 1x60, 2x30, 3x20, 4x15, 5x12 and 6x10. The only even integers smaller than 25 are (6x10) and we know the perimeter. The correct answer is A. 21. Statement (1) tells us that 9X2 is an even number (it’s divisible by 4) and therefore X2 must be an even number. An odd number squared is also odd and therefore X must be even, this statement is sufficient. Statement (2) tells us that 3X + 2 is an even number (it’s divisible by 8). If you subtract 2 from (3X+2) the result will still be even. If 3X is even than X must be even. This statement is also sufficient to answer the question. The correct answer is D. 111280YX22. Changing the equality: 22X + 24Y = 160, we get: Since X must be a positive integer, Y must be smaller than 7. The numerator will be 11, 22, 33, 44 etc. Y must be 3 and X=3. X+Y = 7. The correct answer is C. 23. D shows us the difference between the sum of the percentages and 100 percent. If X+Y>100, this percent must be subtracted from the sum X+Y in order to get 100 percent. Sum of sets minus the total equals the congruence. The correct answer is D. 24. The buying price for one car is 1,105,000 /13 = 85,000.The wished for a car is 39,000 /13 = 3,000. So the selling price must be 85,000 + 3,000. The correct answer is B. 25. 5% of the total price of the cloths is 45.5 dollars, multiply this number to get the entire 100% of the total selling price: (45.5 x 20 = $910). Now subtract the profit $45.5 to get the cost: 910-45.5=$864.5. The correct answer is E. 26. Statement (1) tells us that 9X2 is an even number (it’s divisible by 4) and therefore X2 must be an even number. An odd number squared is also odd and therefore X must be even, this statement is sufficient. Statement (2) tells us that 3X + 2 is an even number (it’s divisible by 8). If you subtract 2 from (3X+2) the result will still be even. If 3X is even than X must be even. This statement is also sufficient to answer the question. 27. In order to know how many people aren’t officers you need a fix value, in other words you need to translate percentage into real values. Statement (1) doesn’t give any real numbers and therefore it’s not sufficient. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Statement (2) is the same as one in that matter, if we wanted to know the percentage of the woman officers, the statements would have been satisfying. More data is required. The correct answer is E. 28. 65X/100 is the number of people who didn’t win the tender. 30% of that number is the number of people who weren’t deeply disappointed about the fact that they didn’t win. 30 x (65X/100) /100 = 19.5/100 = 39/200. The correct answer is A. 29. Since 0.01 and 0.03 each have 2 decimal places, their product must have 4 (2 + 2) decimal places. Because 1 x 3 x 5 is 15, you need to add 2 zeros to get the correct number of decimal places, so the product of 0.01, 5 and 0.03 is 0.0015. To change a decimal to a percentage you multiply by 100 and move the decimal point 2 places to the right, so 0.0015 is 0.15%. The correct answer is C. 30. Pick numbers: a barrel of beer costs $40 and a barrel of juice costs $30 according to the given ratio. One liter of beer will cost $0.5 and one liter of juice will cost $1. Therefore the price ratio is 2:1. The correct answer is B. 31. Statement (1) tells you that X is greater than X2, that is true only if X is between zero and one and so the answer to the question is no. Statement two is identical to one, multiply both sides by (-1) and don’t forget to change the sign of the inequality. Either statement is sufficient by itself. The correct answer is D. 32. From statement (1) we have only one set of numbers. We have 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 and 11. Statement (2) provides no additional data because we can see several sets containing 7. The correct answer is A. 33. Statement (1) tells us that 2M3 + 2M is divisible by 8 and so M4 + M is divisible by 4 and is even. We have two choices: M3 and M are either odd or even. This statement is insufficient. Statement (2) is sufficient, if M + 10 is divisible by 10 then M + 10 is an even number. This statement is sufficient and the answer is B. 34. One is going north and the other is going west. The distance can be calculated using the Pythagorean theorem. One made a distance of 1.6 x 5 = 8 Km, The second one did 1.2 x 5 = 6 Km. The distance between them is the square root of (64 + 36) = 10 Km. The best answer is A. 35. George can fill Q/3 cans of paint in one minute There are R cans in one gallon, so R/(Q/3) = 3R/QIs the time it takes George to fill one gallon (in minutes). In 45 minutes George can fill up 45/(3R/Q) = 15Q/R. The correct answer is E. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 36. Plug in the answers. (a) (4 # 2) = 8. The answer should be 14. (b) (2 # 3) = (2 + 3)3 = 15. The answer should be 6. (c) (2 # 3) = (22 – 3) = 1. The answer should be 6. (d) (4 # 2) = (42 – 2) = 14. This is the right answer; check (2 # 3) also. The correct answer is D. 37. Draw the x and y-axes, then plot the points and connect them. The area of a trapezoid is (base1 + base2) x (height) /2. Base1 = 5, base2 = 4, height = 18 thus the area is 9 x 9 = 81. The answer to the question is the square root of 81, meaning 9. The correct answer is B. GMAT Quantitative test 3 37 Questions 75 minutes For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. 1. An investment yields an interest payment of $68 each week. If the simple annual interest rate is 7.5%, what is the amount of the investment assuming there only 48 weeks are calculated in a year? (a) $28,600 (b) $30,430 (c) $34,330 (d) $37,860 (e) $43,520 2. The flying acrobatic team is made up of 120 airplanes. The team wants to form a rectangular formation with X planes in a row and Y planes in a column. If the number of airplanes in a row is no less than 4 and no more than 30, how many different combinations of rectangular shapes are possible? (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 8. (e) 10. 3. A storeowner estimates that the average price of type A products will increase by 25% next year and that the price of type B products will increase by 10% next year. This year, the total amount paid for type A products was $4500 and the total price paid for type B products was $8300. According to the store owner’s estimate, and For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org assuming the number of products purchased next year remains the same as that of this year, how much will be spent for both products next year? (a) $14,755 (b) $15,325 (c) $16,000 (d) $16,225 (e) $17,155 4. If a cube has a volume of 64 cubic feet, what is its lateral area? (a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) 64 (e) 96 5. Is the integer X even? (1) X is divisible by 7. (2) X is divisible by 11. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 6. Is the product XY divisible by 22? (1) X is divisible by 4. (2) Y is divisible by 11. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 7. A seven-digit combination lock on a safe has zero exactly three times, does not have the digit 1 at all. What is the probability that exactly 3 of its digits are odd? (a) 21 (b) 31 (c) 61 (d) 164 (e) 169 8. Pipe A fills a swimming pool in 4 hours. Pipe B empties the pool in 6 hours. If pipe A was opened at 8:00 am and Pipe B at 9:00 am, at what time will the pool be full? (a) 15:00 (b) 17:00 (c) 18:00 (d) 19:00 (e) 20:00 9. What is the value of (a+b)? (1) a2-b2=133. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (2) a-b=7. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 10. What is the value of X+Z? (1) X+Y=11 (2) Z+Y=13 (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 11. What was the total amount John earned on his two investments? (1) John received an annual interest of 5% on one investment and 13% on the other. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (2) John invested a total of $15,000 on both investments. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 12. What is the sum of the two smallest integers in a set of different positive integers? (1) There are 4 integers in the set. (2) The average of the integers in the set is 3. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 13. In a school with 5 classes, each class has 2 students less then the previous class. How many students are there in the largest class if the total number of students at school is 95? (a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 21 (d) 23 (e) 25 14. A cylindrical ice cream container is half filled with ice cream. A second ice cream container, half the size of the first one is filled to three quarters of its volume with ice cream. What fraction of the total volume of the two containers is filled with ice cream? (a) 129 (b) 127 (c) 32 (d) 65 (e) 2415 15. A 48 gallon solution of salt and water is 10% salt. How many gallons of water must be added to the solution in order to decrease the salt to 8% of the volume? (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (e) 16 16. Five years ago, the average age of the X students in the class was n. What is their average age now, if Y more students whose average age was also n five years ago, joined the class? (a) 5n+(b) 5n−(c) 52yx++ (d) 52yx−+ For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) None of the above 17. The “Racing magic” takes 120 seconds to circle the racing track once. The “Charging bull” makes 40 rounds of the track in an hour. If they left the starting point together, how many minutes will it take for them to meet at the starting point for the second time? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 (e) 15 18. If cookies are put in a jar and the jars of cookies are packed in a carton box, how many cookies does one carton box contain? (1) Every carton box is filed to half its volume. (2) Twenty cookies are put in each jar, and 12 jars are put in each carton box. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 19. If X and Y are integers, what is the value of X? (1) YX946−=(2) XY23311=− (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 20. A restaurant spends one quarter of its monthly budget for rent and half of the rest for food and beverages. What percentage of the budget does the restaurant spend for food and beverages? (a) 23.5% (b) 32.5% (c) 35% (d) 37.5% (e) 75% 21. If x oranges cost as much as y peaches do, and peaches cost 24 cents each, how many dollars does each orange cost? (a) xy2400 (b) x24y (c) 24x100y For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (d) 100x24y (e) 24xy 22. The sum of the volumes of three spheres, each with radius r, equals to the volume of a single sphere with radius R. What is the ratio between r and R? (a) 1: 33 (b) 1: 3 (c) 1:2 (d) 1: 32 (e) 1:3 23. If x and y are primes, and x@y=yx11+, is x@y<1? (1) x=y (2) x+y=4 (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 24. A ball with a diameter of 10 cm is inscribed inside a rectangular box so that it touches all internal faces of the box. What is the volume trapped between the box and the ball? (1) The box is a cube (2) The surface area of the box is 600 cm2. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 25. A rectangular box is inscribed inside a cylinder. Both the width and length of the box is 2 cm. What is the volume of the cylinder? (1) The volume of the box is 20 cm3. (2) The radius of the cylinder is 2. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 26. A car travels a distance of 160 miles in 2 hours and 40 minutes, what is the speed of the car in miles per hour? (a) 54 (b) 60 (c) 84 (d) 116 (e) 120 27. If , what is x? 21618X67X++= (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6 (e) 5 28. In the following sequence: [x, y, z, 5, 7, 16, 28] each number is equal to the sum of the three numbers preceding it. What is x+y? (a) -5 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) 5 (e) 6 29. John has $1,600 at the beginning of his trip, after spending money, he still has exactly $800 less than he spent on the trip. How much money does John still have? (a) $200 (b) $400 (c) $600 (d) $800 (e) $1,200 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 30. The odds of winning first prize at the casino are 1 to 200. The odds of winning second prize are 1 to 100 and of winning third prize are 1 to 50. If no one person can win more than one of the prizes, what is the probability of not winning the first, second or third prize? (a) 20014 (b) 5047 (c) 200193 (d) 2007 (e) 10097 31. A cube has three of its faces painted half red, half white. The other three faces are completely painted white. What is the ratio between the total red painted and the total white painted areas of the cube? (a) 1:6 (b) 3:6 (c) 1:2 (d) 1:4.5 (e) 1:3 32. There are X watermelons of 10 Kg each, and Y Watermelons of R Kg each. The average weight of a watermelon is 12 Kg. What is the value of R? (1) There are five heavier watermelons more than lighter watermelons. (2) The weight of the heavier watermelons in Kg is equal to their number. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 33. The average height of a group of children is 125 cm. If one of the children leaves, the average height drops by 2 cm. how many kids were there originally? (1) The height of the child who left is twice greater than the height of the shortest child. (2) The height of the child who left is 130 cm. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 34. P is the standard deviation of the heights of NBA basketball players. R is the standard deviation of the heights of 8 weight lifters. Is the average height of the NBA players greater than the average height of the weight lifters? (1) R>P (2) There are 5 basketball players that are taller than the tallest weight lifter, and 2 players that are shorter than the shortest weight lifter. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 35. The average monthly income of 14 younger workers is X, Together with 60 older workers, the average monthly income of the workers rose to Y. what is the average monthly income of the older workers? (1) The factory’s monthly budget for all salaries is 300,000$, which is 10 times the salary budget for the younger workers. (2) The monthly income of all the workers is 10 times the younger workers income. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 36. One out of every 500 light bulbs are defected. If 2 out of every 10 defected light bulbs have a broken glass and there are 20 broken glass light bulbs in the shipment, how many light bulbs total are there in the shipment? (a) 2,000 (b) 5,000 (c) 10,000 (d) 50,000 (e) 52,000 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 37. If a is an even integer and b is an odd integer, what must the expression 8ba33 be? (a) Always even (b) Always odd (c) Always a fraction (d) Could be a fraction (e) Always an integer Answers and explanations: 1. Principal × percent interest = interest earned Principle× (0.075)× 1/(12 x 4) = $68. Solve to find the principal (68 × 12 x 4)/0.075= $43,520. The correct answer is D. 2. Use the factors of 120 are: 1x120, 2x60, 3x40, 10x12, 4x30, 5x24, 6x20 and 8x15. We are looking for combinations of (row x column) that are all between 8 and 30. The possibilities are: 8x15, 15x8, 4x30, 30x4, 5x24, 24x5, 6x20, 20x6, 10x12 and 12x10. That is 10 possibilities total. The correct answer is E. 3. The total estimated amount that will be spent on type A product next year: 5625$1001254500$=×. The total estimated amount that will be spent on type B product next year: 9130$1001108300$=×. Giving a total spending of $14,755. The correct answer is A. 4. The side of a cube equals the cubic root of its volume; in this question it is 4. The lateral area of a cube equals the sum of four faces; in this question each face is 16, and the lateral area is four times that, giving 64. The correct answer is B. 5. The fact that X is divisible by 7 does not help figure out whether it is odd or even, both even and odd numbers could be divisible by 7. The same applies for 11; both even and odd numbers could be divisible by 11. Both statements taken together do not shed a new light on the matter, there could be even and odd numbers that are divisible by 7 and 11. The correct answer is E. 6. The prime factors of 22 are 2 and 11. Hence, if X is divisible by 4, it is divisible by 2 and if Y is divisible by 11, surely XY is divisible by 22. The correct answer is C. 7. Since three digits are zero, only 4 digits are left for consideration (of which, none is zero). Since 1 does not appear in the numbers, there are 4 even numbers (without 0), and 4 odd numbers (without 1) to choose from. The probability for every digit to be For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org odd is 21. There are 4 different ways to arrange 3 odd numbers and one even number in 4 places. Each of these ways has a probability of ()214. And together: ()16416144214=×=×. The correct answer is D. 8. From 8:00 am to 9:00 am, Pipe A, which fills the pool in 4 hours, was open for one hour, filling one quarter of the pool. From 9:00 am, the two Pipes worked together at the rate of: 1216141=−, one pool in 12 hours. Since the pool was already one quarter full at 9:00 am, it will take only 9 hours to fill the remaining three quarters of the pool. 9 hours from 9:00 am is 18:00. The correct answer is C. 9. Since a2-b2=(a+b)(a-b), 133=(a+b)7, and (a+b)=19. Both statements are needed to solve the question. The correct answer is C. 10. Each statement alone leaves out one of the terms x or z, so we cannot find their sum using any statement alone. Moreover, even combining both statements does not help: 1113xzz13x11z13yx 11y13yz 11yx−=−−=−−=−==+=+ It is only possible to find z-x. The correct answer is E. 11. Knowing the interest alone is not enough to calculate the profit. Knowing the total amount invested is not enough to calculate the profit, unless we have the interest rate. Since we have no knowledge of the amount invested in each investment, there is no way to know how much was earned. The correct answer is E. 12. The only two possible sets that have 4 different positive integers and an average of 3 are: [1, 2, 3, 6] and [1, 2, 4, 5]. The sum of the two smallest integers in both sets is always 3. The correct answer is C. 13. If X is the number of students in the largest class, then the numbers of students in the other classes are: X-2, X-4, X-6 and X-8. The total number of students is: 958)(X6)(X4)(X2)(XX=−+−+−+−+ and 23X1155X95205X=⇒=⇒=−. The correct answer is D. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 14. Take 40 litters as the volume of the large container to ease the calculations. Of this volume, 20 litters are ice cream. The volume of the second is 20 litters and 15 litters are ice cream. So, the total volume of both containers is 40+20=60, and the ice cream is 20+15=35. Now, 1276035=. The correct answer is B. 15. Solve a combined average problem: 8%X)(480%X10%48=+×+×. The correct answer is B. 16. The average age of both groups, x and y was n five years ago. Therefore, it is possible to treat them as one group with that average. Five years later, each student added 5 years to his age, adding 5 to the average of the whole class, and making it n+5. The correct answer is: A. 17. The rate of the “racing magic” is 40 rounds per hour, or 1 round every 1.5 minutes. The rate of the “Charging bull” is 1 round every 120 seconds, or 1 round every 2 minutes. The best way to solve such a question is to find the least common denominator between the two rates. At that point, they will meet for the first time, and when multiplied by 2, we find the second time they meet: 64631.5121↔=↔. They will meet for the first time after 6 minutes and for the second time after 12 minutes. The correct answer is D. 18. The first statement gives no information of the number of cookies. The volume of the carton box or the percent of its volume filled, do not help in finding any number. The second statement gives all the information needed in order to find the number of cookies packed in each carton box. The number of cookies per jar, and the number of jars per box are sufficient to calculate real numbers. The correct answer is B. 19. In order to find the value of a term in an equation with two unknowns, two different equations are needed. Since both equations given in statements 1 and 2 are, in fact, the same equation in a different shape, it is impossible to find the value of X or Y. 2X3Y3119Y46X=−⇔−=. The correct answer is E. 20. After spending one quarter of the budget on rent, 75% is left, of that half = 37.5% is spent for food and beverages. The correct answer is D. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 21. Compare x oranges to y peaches at the price of 24 cents per peach. Divide by 100 to receive the amount in dollar: x100y24O10024yOxPeachesyOrangesx=⇒=×⇒×=×. The correct answer is D. 22. Compare the volumes: 3333331RrRr3Rπ34rπ343=⇒=×⇒=×. The correct answer is A. 23. Since x=y and both are primes, yx11+could equal 32when x=y=3, or equal 1 when x=y=2. Therefore, the first statement is not sufficient to solve. According to the second statement, x+y=4, the only primes to match are x=y=2. Now we know that yx11+=1 and the question is solved. The correct answer is B. 24. Statement (1) tells us that the diameter of the ball is the height of cube, so we can find its volume. Statement (2) actually tells us that the box is a cube, and the rest is similar to statement one. The correct answer is D. 25. Statement (1) can provide us the height of the cylinder while statement (2) gives us data we already can conclude from the question. The correct answer is A. 26. The car travels 160 miles in 160 minutes, that is 1 mile per minute. So, it travels 60 miles in 60 minutes, or 60 miles per hour. The correct answer is B. 27. . And x=5. The correct answer is: E. 186X7)X42221618X67)X418X67X+=+⇒=⇒=++++(( 28. First find z: z+5+7=16, therefore, z=4. Now, y+4+5=7 making y=(-2). Now we can find x: x+(-2)+4=5, so, x=3. Hence, x+y=3+(-2)=1. The correct answer is: C. 29. John spends a sum of m dollars and still has m-800 left. So, m+m-800=1,600, and m=$1,200. Therefore, John still has $1,600-$1,200=$400. The correct answer is B. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 30. Calculate the odds of not winning first, second or third prize by deducting the chances of winning first, second or third from 1: 200193501100120011=⎟⎠⎞⎜⎝⎛++−. The correct answer is: C. 31. The red painted area is 3 half faces and the white painted area is a total of 9 half faces. The ratio is, therefore, 1 to 3. The correct answer is: E. 32. Statement (1) defines the relationship between X and Y. Statement (2) defines the relationship between Y and R. We get the following equations: 10 x X + R x Y = 12 (X+Y), Y=X+5, and Y=R. Now solve and find R. The correct answer is C. 33. Since we don’t know how many children there are at all, it won’t help us to know the relationship between the child who left and the shortest child. Statement (2) defines the connection between the sum of the heights before and after the departure and using the change in the sum divided by the new number of children we can find the number of children. The correct answer is B. 34. Since we have no concrete info about the exact heights, or about the value of P and R, we cannot determine whether the NBA players or the weight lifters are taller. We need more data. The correct answer is E. 35. Statement (1) can tell us the value of Y, and the value of X, which is enough to solve this problem. Statement (2) alone only defines the connection between X and Y. The correct answer is A. 36. Two out of every 10 damaged light bulbs have a broken glass, so if 20 bulbs have a broken glass, there are 100 damaged light bulbs. Since one out of every 500 is damaged, there are light bulbs in the shipment. The correct answer is D. 00050500100,=× 37. Since the even number a is raised to the power of 3, it is always divisible by 8. Therefore, the whole expression must be an integer, an even or an odd one. Of course, the expression cannot be a fraction. The correct answer is E. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org GMAT Quantitative test 4 37 Questions 75 minutes These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 1. A salesperson gets a 15% commission on each sale he makes. How many sales of $270 each must he make in order to reach a salary of at least $1000? (a) 15 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (e) 52 2. In how many different ways can five people be seated on a five-seat bench if two of them must sit next to each other? (a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 120 (d) 240 (e) 480 3. Liqueur A contains 24% of alcohol. What is the alcohol concentration of the mixed cocktail of liqueur A and B? (1) The mixing ratio of liqueur A and B is 1:4 (2) The alcohol concentration of liqueur B is 1.5 times greater than the alcohol concentration of the mixed cocktail. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 4. What is the average height of X buildings, each with height P meters, and 4X buildings each with height P/2? (1) X = 5, P = 35. (2) P = 40. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 5. A, B, C and D are four consecutive points on a straight line. What is the distance between A to D? (1) AC = 6. (2) BD = 8. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 6. The area of an isosceles trapezoid with sides of length 5 and bases of length 8 and 14 is? For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (a) 22 (b) 32 (c) 44 (d) 55 (e) 56 7. One gallon of soft drink is made of 40% orange juice and 60% water, how many additional gallons of orange juice must be mixed in to make the orange juice 60% of the soft drink? (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 1.25 (d) 1.5 (e) 2 8. A merchant gets a 5% discount on each meter of fabric he buys after the first 2,000 meters and a 7% discount on every meter after the next 1,500 meters. The price, before discount, of one meter of fabric is $2, what is the total amount of money the merchant spends on 4,500 meters of fabric? (a) $8,617 (b) $8,710 (c) $8,810 (d) $8,835 (e) $8,915 9. If X, Y and Z are positive integers, is X greater than Z – Y? (1) X – Z – Y > 0. (2) Z2 = X2 + Y2. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 10. Zigfield bought his car using M% of his bank savings. He also bought a house that costs 4 times the price of the car. What is the price of the house? (1) M = 12. (2) The price of the car and the house was $140,000. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 11. On a summer camp, 25% of the campers paid $120 each, 35% paid $80 each and the rest paid $65 each. What percentage of the total amount paid came from the campers who paid $80? (a) 18% (b) 21% (c) 26% (d) 33.3% (e) 37.5% 12. A snail, climbing a 20 feet high wall, climbs up 4 feet on the first day but slides down 2 feet on the second. It climbs 4 feet on the third day and slides down again 2 feet on the fourth day. If this pattern continues, how many days will it take the snail to reach the top of the wall? (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 20 (e) 21 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 13. John spent a total of $135 on baseball tickets. The price of a ticket is either $12 for the field seats or $5 for the balcony. What is the minimum amount of dollars he could have spent for the $12 tickets? (a) $48 (b) $60 (c) $84 (d) $96 (e) $120 14. One of the solutions of the equation X2-X-k=5, is –3. What is the other solution of the equation? (a) 4 (b) -4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 24 15. Is the largest of 7 consecutive numbers odd? (1) The product of the seven numbers is zero. (2) The sum of the seven numbers is zero. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 16. If X and Y are positive integers, what is the ratio between Y and X? (1) XY = 150. (2) Y is 22% of X. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 17. What is the value of (X2 + Y2)? (1) (X – Y)2 = 36. (2) (X + Y)2 = 48. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 18. There are X dogs in the dog hound, each dog eats Y Kg of food every day. What percent of the total food weight does each dog eat? (1) If there were 3 dogs less then each dog could eat 1.2 Kg more than he is does now. (2) If there were half the dogs, each dog could eat 3 Kg more than he is does now. (a) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (b) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 19. What is the sum of all even integers between 30 and 50, inclusive? (a) 640 (b) 540 (c) 480 (d) 440 (e) 240 20. The price (p) of product X depends on the yearly number of units produced (n) according to the following formula: 10n-500p=. What will the estimated price per unit be next year if an estimated number of 260 units will be sold? (a) 24 (b) 26 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) 240 ysics ook is next to another physics book, how many different arrangements exist? ) 720 investment he receives a return of 6%. What is the return n his $20,000 investment? (e) 9% t is the probability of getting an identical result on three consecutive tosses of coin? (a) (c) 50 (d) 60 (e 21. John must arrange 3 different physics books and 3 different mathematics books onone shelf. If the first book on the leftmost side is a mathematics book and no phb (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 36 (d) 120 (e 22. An investor receives a total combined return of 7% on his two different investments. On his $10,000o (a) 7.25%(b) 7.5%(c) 8% (d) 8.5% 23. Whaa 21 41 81 161 4121+ (e) For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 4. If x and y are positive integers, is 5x(1/4)y < 1 ? ) Y = 3x. ) X = 2. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 5. If A is a prime number, what is the value of A? ) 0 < A < 10. ) (A – 2) is divisible by 3. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) y itself is not. BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. 2 (1 (2 (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 2 (1 (2 (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 55BA+26. What is the value of (1 1010=+BA(2) (a) Statement (1)b (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 27. A salesperson receives a base salary of $1000 per month and a commission of 7.5% of the selling price of each item sold above the first 50 itemso (a) $1,500 (b) $1,800 (c) $2,100 (d) $2,500 (e28. What is the probabilitysiFor more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (a) 31 367 61 3610 91 (e) 2 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5 23BB≥3(1 (a) Statement (1)b For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) ) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, ) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. 1. If Peter spends $460 on three pairs of shoes, how much did the least expansive 3 to 1. ) The ratio between the least expansive shoes to all the other ones is 1 to 5. ) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) ) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) ) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, ) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. Y? ) Y percent of 200 is 20. ) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (bby itself is not. (ceven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (eq 3shoes cost? (1) The ratio between the most expansive shoes to the least expansive shoes is (2 (aby itself is not. (bby itself is not. (ceven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (d) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (eq 32. What percent of 20 is (1) 50 percent of Y is 5. (2 (aFor more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) y itself is not. t to answer the question, ven though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. ) Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. sufficient to answer the uestion, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. deputies and two ssistants for the class committee out of 7 students up for election? ) 2520 s the number of items must e sold monthly for the factory to cover its cost exactly? ) 27,000 e average speed for the entire trip was 60 miles er hour, what is v in miles per hour? (b) Statement (2)b (c) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficiene (d (e) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOTq 33. What is the number of different ways to choose a chairman, twoa (a) 25 (b) 210 (c) 630 (d) 840 (e 34. A factory has a fixed cost of $45,000 a month, and a cost of $2.5 for every item produced. If the selling price of a single item is $5, what ib (a) 9,000 (b) 14,000 (c) 18,000 (d) 22,500 (e 35. John traveled 80% of the way from Yellow-town to Green-fields by train at an average speed of 80 miles per hour. The rest of the way John traveled by car at an average speed of v miles per hour. If thp (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 55 For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org ) 70 t total 12,880 ounces of horse food per day, what is the number of sheep in the rm? ) 60 apacity within 8 hours, in how many hours was it filled to one quarter f its capacity? ) 7 nswers and explanations: (e 36. The ratio between the number of sheep and the number of horses at the Stewarfarm is 4 to 7, If each horse is fed 230 ounces of horse food per day and the farm needs afa (a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 56 (e 37. The volume of water inside a swimming pool doubles every hour. If the pool is filled to its full co (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e A 1. The commission pc 2. Treat the two that seat together as one person, now there are only 4 people to be For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org together can switch places on any of the 24 different ways, so we have 48 ways total. The correct answer is B. 3. Statement (1) gives us the quantity of each of the liqueurs. Statement (2) gives us the connection between the alcohol concentration of liqueur B and the mixed cocktail. The equation looks like this: 0.2*24 + 0.8(1.5X) = X. The correct answer is C. 4. Of course, statement (1) gives of the values of all the parameters, but the value of X is unnecessary. (XP+2XP)/5X is equivalent to3P/5. Statement (2) also gives us the answer. The correct answer is D. 5. First, draw the line with the points marked. We know AC and BD but it’s not sufficient to know the length of AD. If the question said the points are evenly spaced than the answer would be solvable. The correct answer is E. 6. The height of the trapezoid can be calculated using a right angle triangle of 3,4 and 5 created with the height, the side and half of the difference between the two bases. When finding the height of 4, the area is calculated as the product of the average of the bases and the height: 4442148=×⎟⎠⎞⎜⎝⎛+. The correct answer is C. 7. Use the average formula to solve the following equation: %%60X1100%X401=+×+×. X=0.5 gallon. The correct answer is A. 8. The price of the first 2,000 meters of fabric is $2 = $4,000. The price of the next 1,500 meters is 95% of $2 = $1.9 = $2,850. The price of the last 1,000 meters is 93% of $2 = $1.86 = $1,860. The total amount spent is: $4,000+$2,850+$1,860=$8,710. The correct answer is B. 9. The best answer is A. From statement (1) we learn that X > Z + Y therefore X must be bigger than Z – Y (positive integers). From statement (2) we learn that X2 = Z2 – Y2 and that tells us nothing relevant. 10. With statement (1) we know that the car cost 12% of his life savings. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org From statement (2) we know that $140,000 is the price of both the car and the house. Use simple ratio to find what is the cost of the house. The correct answer is B. 11. Take 100 campers as an example to work with, 25 paid $120 =$3,000 total, 35 paid $80 = $2,800 total, and 40 (the rest) paid $65 = $2,600. The total amount paid is $8,400. The amount paid by the campers who paid $65 is %.,$,$3333140088002==. The correct answer is D. 12. The snail climbs 2 feet every 2 days, hence, on the 16th day he is 16 feet up the wall. The snail needs only the 17th day to climb 4 feet more and reach the top of the wall. The correct answer is C. 13. Since John spent all of the $135 on the tickets, their prices must sum up to $135. The Minimum amount spent for the $12 tickets, is the smallest amount that is divisible by 12, and still leaves an amount divisible by 5. $60 is the smallest amount both divisible by 12 and leaving $135-$60=$75, which is divisible by $5. The correct answer is B. 14. First, plug in the solution –3 to find the value of k:(), k=7. Then solve: to find the second solution: X=4. The correct answer is A. 05-k332=−−−−)(05-7XX2=−− 15. From statement (1) we learn that there is a 0 among the seven numbers, yet the largest number can be odd or even. (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)or (-1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5). From statement (2) we know that the numbers are located symmetrically around the zero, therefore the largest number is even. The correct answer is B. 16. The question actually asks what is Y/X or X/Y. Statement (1) is not sufficient because from the product of the two variables we can’t make out the ratio. Statement (2) is sufficient by itself, Y = 22X/100 Y/X = 11/50. The correct answer is B. 17. Statement (1) can be written as X2 – 2XY +Y2 = 36. Statement (2) can be written as X2 + 2XY +Y2 = 48. Adding both equations will give: 2X2 + 2Y2 = 84 X2 + Y2 = 42. Therefore, both statements are needed in order to solve the question and the correct answer is C. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 18. In order to know the answer we need two equations: From statement (1) we can write: XY = (X – 3)(Y + 1.2). From statement (2) we can write: XY = (X/2)(Y + 3). You don’t need to solve the equations, the answer is C, both equations are needed to solve the question and the correct answer is C. 19. The sum of the even integers between 30 and 50 inclusive can be calculated using the product of the number of integers by their average. The average of a fixed-difference sequence of numbers can be calculated as the average of the largest and the smallest numbers: 4025030=+. We remember that between 30 and 49, inclusive, there are 20 numbers of which half are even and half odd. Add 1 (the number 50) to the 10 even numbers to receive a total of 11 even integers, multiply it by the average to get the sum: .4401140=× The correct answer is D. 20. Plug the number of units into the given formula to find the price per unit: 10260-500p=. P=24. The correct answer is A. 21. The leftmost book is a mathematics book; the next is physics and so on. So, the odd places books are the mathematics books and the even placed books are the physics books. The mission is therefore, arranging three mathematics books in three places (3! =6 arrangements) and three physics books in three places (3! =6 arrangements). The total number of different arrangements is the product of the two missions: . The correct answer is: C. 366633=×=×!! 22. The combined return is 7% of $30,000 = $2,100. Subtract the 6% return on his $10,000 investment = $600. $2,100-$600=$1,500. This is the return on his second investment of $20,000. $1,500 of $20,000 is a 7.5% return. The correct answer is B. 23. The first toss will be either heads or tails. The probability that the result on the second toss is identical to the first is 21. The probability that the result on the third toss is identical to that of the second is also 21. The total probability is, therefore, 412121=×. The correct answer is B. 24. Use statement (1) to write: 5x(1/4)3x = (5/64)x. Because x is a positive integer only, the expression will always be smaller than 1. This statement alone provides us the answer. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Use statement (2) to write: 52(1/4)y the answer here is dependent on y, a different combinations of the variable y will give different results. Therefore the correct answer is A. 25.Statement (1) narrows down A to be one of: 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7. This statement is insufficient. Statement (2) is also insufficient; there are a lot of numbers that fulfill this statement, like 17, 23 and many more. Even after you combine both statements, there are still two options: 5 and 2. In both, when subtracting 2 we get a number that is divisible by 3. The correct answer is E. 26. Statement (1) is sufficient enough because all you need to do is divide both sides by to get the answer, (20). Statement (2) is also sufficient by it self, because all you need to do is to multiply both sides by 2 to get the correct answer. The correct answer is D. 27. The salesperson receives a commission on 210-50=160 sales. The commission on every sale is 7.5% of $150 = $11.25. 80012511160,$.=×. The correct answer is: E. 28. When two dice are rolled together, there are 4 different possibilities to receive a sum of 9: [3,6], [4,5], [5,4], [6,3], out of a total of 36 different possibilities. 91364=. The correct answer is E. 29. When multiplying any number by a number with a units’ digit of 5, the units’ digit of the product will be either 5 (when all numbers are odd) or 0 (when there is at least one even number). Since in this question there are no even numbers, the units’ digit is 5. The correct answer is D. 30. There are two cases in which the inequality will not be true, when B is a fraction or when B is negative. Statements (1) and (2) cover both of these cases and therefore both statements, taken together, are sufficient. The correct answer is C. 31. We need to find what is the price of the least expansive among three shoes. Statement (1) gives us the ratio between the most expansive shoes and the least expansive one but that’s not sufficient because we have no information about the middle priced shoes. Statement (2) is sufficient. If the ratio between the least expansive to all the shoes is 1 to 5 than we can calculate the price of the least expansive shoes, (460/6). The correct answer is B. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 32. The question, in other words, is asking what is the value of (Y/20 x 100). So all we need to find out is the value of Y. Statement (1) gives us Y, it is equal to 10. Statement (2) is also sufficient, it also tells us that Y is equal to 10. The correct answer is D. 33. There are 7 different choices for chairman, 15125642626=××=×=⎟⎟⎠⎞⎜⎜⎝⎛!!!choices for the two deputies (choosing 2 out of 6), and 6123422424=××=×=⎟⎟⎠⎞⎜⎜⎝⎛!!!choices for the two assistants. The total is choices. The correct answer is: C. 6306157=×× 34. To find the number of items sold that makes the revenues equal to the cost, solve the following equation: X$5X5200045×=×+.$,$, X=18,000. The correct answer is C. 35. Take 100 miles as the total mileage traveled, then calculate the total distance divided by the total time to receive the average speed for the whole trip: 60208080100=+v. And v=30 miles per hour. The correct answer is B. 36. The number of horses can be calculated using the total weight of daily horse food divided by the weight each horse is fed daily: 5623088012=,. There are 56 horses at the farm. Since the ratio is 4 to7, between the sheep and horses, the number of sheep is: 32488756=×⇒=. There are 32 sheep. The correct answer is C. 37. Solve this question backwards. If the pool was full on the 8th hour, it was half filled on the 7th and one quarter filled on the 6th. The correct answer is D. GMAT Verbal test 1 41 Questions 75 minutes For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. 1. Government policies should ensure that network owners charge nondiscriminatory prices to any client who wants to use their home network to distribute information. A. who wants to use their home network to distribute information B. who wants to be using his home network to distribute information C. who wants to use his home network to distribute information D. which wants to use his home network to distribute information E. which wants to use their home network to distribute information 2. Common stocks, which are shares of ownership in a corporation, is the most direct way to participate in the fortunes of a company. A. is the most direct way to participate in the fortunes of a company B. is the most direct way for participating in the fortunes of a company. C. is the most direct way of participating in the fortunes of a company. D. are the most direct way to participate in the fortunes of a company. E. are the most direct way for participating in the fortunes of a company. 3. Organic farmers are looking for non-chemical methods to rid their crops of pests. Giving crops a slight electric shock has no ill effect on crops but rids them of caterpillars. This method should be employed by organic farmers all over the country. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the view that it would not be advisable to try to eradicate agricultural pests with the method mentioned above? (A) Most species of caterpillar are subject to some natural predators. (B) Many agricultural pests do not go through a caterpillar stage. (C) This method also kills insects that are agriculturally beneficial. (D) Since caterpillars of different species appear at different times of the year, several shocks would be necessary. (E) No large-scale production facilities exist today for the product that electrifies crops. 4. A study of business partnerships in which one partner’s management style differs from that of the other partner reveals that such partnerships are more likely be fraught with problems and to ultimately end in dissolution. Thus, mismatched management styles can seriously jeopardize a business partnership. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (A) Business partnerships in which both partners have the same management style also occasionally have disagreements that can jeopardize the partnership. (B) The management style of individuals tends to vary from year to year. (C) The individuals who have management style that differ significantly from those of their partners tend to argue little with spouses at home. (D) Partners who are considering dissolution have been found to express hostility by adopting a different management styles from that of their partners. (E) According to a recent study, most people’s management styles can be controlled and modified easily. 5. A report on the use of monosodium glutamate in food concluded, “Most Americans who consume monosodium glutamate regularly are not being harmed.” Critics of the report insist the conclusion be changed to, “Most Americans who consume For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org monosodium glutamate do not show visible symptoms of harm by the substance, such as abnormal rashes or slower rates of metabolism.” Which of the following, if true, provides the best logical justification for the critics’ insistence that the report’s conclusion be changed? (A) Some Americans who consume monosodium glutamate regularly are being harmed by the substance. (B) Monosodium glutamate could be causing long term damage for which symptoms have not yet become visible. (C) The report does not compare harm caused to Americans who consume monosodium glutamate with harm caused to people in other countries. (D) Monosodium glutamate has been added to a growing number of commonly consumed foods during the past fifteen years. (E) The severity of damage by monosodium glutamate differs from person to person. The following passage relates to questions 6-9. On May 5th, 1997, the European edition of Business Tech Magazine led with Hoffman’s cover story "Internet Communities: How They're Shaping Electronic Commerce". This cover story highlights the extent to which the term virtual community has become almost synonymous with various forms of group-CMCs (computer mediated communication), including email-list forums, chat-systems such as IRC, web-based discussion areas and UseNet news-groups. There was no debate in the Business Tech Magazine article as to whether the group-CMC discussions are really 'communities', rather how community as opposed to content can be used to encourage people to return to a particular part of cyberspace for commercial gain. In a similar vein, Simpson and Armstrong in "Internet Gain" argue that ignoring virtual communities would be a great loss of a marketing tool for businesses. They define virtual communities as computer mediated space where there is an integration of content and communication with an emphasis on member-generated content. Not all virtual community commentators agree with the Spartan position taken by Hoffman. Rheingold, one of the prime popularizers of the term virtual community, provides us with a more emotive definition in his book The Virtual Community: Homesteading on the Electronic Frontier. According to Rheingold, "virtual communities are social aggregations that emerge from the Net when enough people carry on those public discussions long enough, with sufficient human feeling, to form webs of personal relationships in cyberspace". Rheingold's definition is extremely popular and has been quoted in many discussions about virtual communities. As discussed below, for social scientists, particularly sociologists, Rheingold's definition raises many issues, especially concerning the notion of community. This is because Rheingold argues via a variety of analogies from the real world such as homesteading For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org that virtual communities are indeed new forms of "community". In fact, Rheingold implies that virtual communities are actually "a kind of ultimate flowering of community". Moreover, Rheingold maintains that whenever computer mediated communications technology becomes available, people inevitably create communities with it. Rheingold can thus be labeled as a technological determinist as he holds that there is a predictable relationship between technology and people's behavior. The debate over the validity of Rheingold's position has raised doubts about the existence of virtual communities and the appropriate use of the term. Weinreich claims that the idea of virtual communities must be wrong because community is a collective of kinship networks that share a common geographic region, a common history, and a shared value system, usually rooted in a common religion. In other words, Weinreich rejects the existence of virtual communities because group-CMC discussions cannot possibly meet his definition. In Weinreich's view, anyone with even a basic knowledge of sociology understands that information exchange in no way constitutes a community. 6. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) suggest an alternate definition for the term virtual communities (B) challenge the validity of group-CMCs in the virtual community (C) discuss whether group-CMCs constitute real communities (D) present two opposing hypotheses and presents research and evidence to support them (E) emphasize the unsuitability of traditional definitions of community in light of the recent establishment of virtual communities on the Net 7. According to Simpson and Armstrong, virtual communities (A) are not as effective as content in encouraging people to return to a particular part of the Internet. (B) emphasize attracting new members through their use of absorbing content (C) are not really communities, but simply group-CMC discussions (D) has become almost synonymous with various forms of group-CMCs (E) are an invaluable marketing tool for businesses. 8. Weinreich rejects Rheingold’s inclusion of virtual communities in the definition of communities for all of the following reasons EXCEPT (A) virtual communities do not usually exchange information (B) virtual communities do not usually share the same territory (C) virtual communities do not usually share values (D) virtual communities do not usually share a common history (E) virtual communities are not usually rooted in a common religion For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 9. The author says ‘there was no debate in the Business Tech Magazine article’ to emphasize which of the following points? (A) It is not content but community that can be used to entice the public to go back to a commercial website (B) It is not community but content that can be used to entice the public to go back to a commercial website (C) It would be a great loss of a business-marketing tool if virtual communities were ignored. (D) There are various forms of group-CMCs, including email-list forums, chat-systems, web-based discussion areas and UseNet news-groups. (E) Business Tech Magazine had already assumed that group-CMCs are communities. 10. We now have wireless computer networks, direct-broadcast satellite television, digital wireless cable television networks, global telephone service, and global positioning systems that can pinpoint an individual’s location to a few inches. A. that can pinpoint an individual’s location to a few inches B. that can pinpoint an individual’s location in a few inches C. which can pinpoint an individual’s location to a few inches D. which can pinpoint an individual’s location of a few inches E. which should pinpoint an individual’s location to a few inches 11. To deal with this explosion of data, one can use the computer and communications technology to help us sort, store, transport, and most important, understand the information. A. to help us sort, store, transport, and most important, understand the information. B. to help us sort, store, transport, and most important, to understand the information. C. to help us to sort, store, transport, and most important, understand the information. D. to help one to sort, store, transport, and most important, understand the information. E. to help one sort, store, transport, and most important, understand the information. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 12. It will improve education, make government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, reduce health-car costs while improving quality, and give communities new ways to address problems such as crime and pollution. A. It will improve education, make government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, reduce health-car costs while improving quality, B. It will improve education, make government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, health-car costs will be reduced while improving quality, C. It will improve education, make government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, reduce health-car costs while improve quality, D. It will improve education, make government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, reducing health-car costs while improving quality, E. It will improve education, making government at all levels more cost-effective and user friendly, reducing health-car costs while improving quality, 13. Until recently, most automobile manufacturers minimized the weight of their cars to maximize mileage. The safest chassis were heavy, so few manufacturers equipped their cars with the safest chassis. This year the chassis metal that has sold best to automobile manufacturers has been the safest one—a clear indication that manufacturers are assigning a higher priority to safety than to mileage. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (A) Last year's best-selling chassis metal was not the safest chassis metal on the market. (B) No automobile manufacturer has announced that it would be making safe chassis a higher priority this year. (C) The price of gas was higher this year than it had been in most of the years when the safest chassis sold poorly. (D) Because of increases in the cost of materials, all car chassis were more expensive to manufacture this year than in any previous year. (E) Because of technological innovations, the safest chassis on the market this year weighed less than some other chassis on the market. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 14. The CEO of Black’s International has proposed replacing their Marmacil semiconductor manufacturing equipment with Fasttech equipment since it costs 30 percent less to train new staff on the Fasttech equipment. Those opposed to the change have pointed out the savings in training cost does not justify the change. Instead, they suggested that the company hire only people who already know how to use the Marmacil equipment. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the objection to the replacement of Marmacil semiconductor manufacturing equipment with Fasttechs? (A) Currently all employees in the company are required to attend workshops on how to use Marmacil semiconductor manufacturing equipment in new applications. (B) Once employees learn how to use semiconductor-manufacturing equipment, they tend to change employers more readily than before. (C) Experienced users of Marmacil equipment command much higher salaries than do prospective employees who have no experience in the use of such equipment. (D) The average productivity of employees in the general manager's company is below the average productivity of the employees of its competitors. (E) The high costs of replacement parts make Marmacil computers more expensive to maintain than Fasttech semiconductor manufacturing equipment. 15. A pharmaceutical company developed a new diuretic reported to cause fewer side effects than their old diuretic, which was still being manufactured. During the first year that both were sold, the earlier medication far outsold the new one; the manufacturer thus concluded that reducing side effects was not the customers' primary consideration. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the manufacturer’s conclusion? (A) Both hospitals and patients buy diuretics from this pharmaceutical company. (B) Many customers consider older medications a better safety risk than new ones, since more is usually known about the safety of the earlier drugs. (C) Many customers of this pharmaceutical company also bought medications from companies who did not produce new diuretics reported to cause fewer side effects. (D) The newer diuretic can be used by all the patients who could use the earlier diuretic. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (E) There was no significant difference in price between the newer diuretic and the earlier diuretic. 16. Republicans also benefited from the enthusiastic and well-organized support of conservative Christians concerning about social issues, including abortion. A. concerning about social issues, including abortion. B. concerning on social issues, including abortion. C. concerned about social issues, including abortion D. concerned on social issues, including abortion E. concerned social issues, including abortion The following passage relates to questions 17-20. Take a very commonplace, often discussed and critical topic: Are we detecting a greenhouse effect, and related to this, is it exacerbated by "homogenic factors," i.e., human actions? Most would be inclined to give a positive answer to both of these questions. But, if pushed, what would be the evidence, and how well grounded would it be for such affirmations? Within scientific communities and associated scientifically informed circles, the answers have to be somewhat more ambiguous, particularly when rigorous questions concerning evidence are raised. Were scientific truth to be a matter of consensus, and some argue that scientific truth often turns out to be just that, then it is clear that there is beginning to be a kind of majority consensus among many earth science practitioners that the temperature of the Earth, particularly of the oceans, is indeed rising and that this is a crucial indicator for a possible greenhouse effect. Most of these scientists admit that the mean oceanic temperature has risen globally in the last several decades. But this generalization depends upon how accurate measurements may be, not just for samples, but also for the whole Earth. Hot spots, for example the now four year old hot spot near New Guinea which is part of the El Niño cycle, does not count by itself because it might be balanced by cold spots elsewhere. And the fact of the matter is that "whole earth measurements" are still rare and primitive in the simple sense that we simply do not have enough thermometers out. Secondly, even if we had enough thermometers, a simply synchronic whole earth measurement over three decades is but a blip in the diachronic history of ice age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years. Thirdly, even if we know that the earth is now heating up, has an ever increasing ozone hole, and from this strange weather effects can be predicted, how much of this is due to homogenic factors, such as CFCs, CO2 increases, hydrocarbon burning, and the like? Is it really the case, as Science magazine claimed in l990, "24% of greenhouse encouraging gases are of homogenic origin"? For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 17. In this passage the author is primarily interested in (A) Whether scientific truths are simply a matter of consensus (B) Determining how well established the greenhouse effect is and to what degree it is worsened by human actions (C) Whether the hot spot El Niño is balanced elsewhere by cold spots (D) Determining if most scientists would be inclined to give a positive answer to the question of whether there is a greenhouse effect and if it is worsened by human actions (E) Making a simple synchronic whole earth measurement more than a blip in the diachronic history of Ice Age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years. 18. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect? (A) 24% of greenhouse encouraging gases are of homogenic origin. (B) There is a greenhouse effect that is exacerbated by homogenic factors. (C) The ozone hole is increasing due to homogenic factors, such as CFCs, CO2 increases, hydrocarbon burning, and the like. (D) One can determine if mean oceanic temperatures have risen globally in the last several decades only if measurements of ocean temperatures are precise. (E) Hot spots, such as the El Niño cycle, should not be counted as a factor in the greenhouse effect. 19. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) We cannot be certain that strange weather effects are a result of the earth heating up and an ever-increasing ozone hole. (B) The greenhouse effect is the most widely discussed topic in the scientifically informed circles. (C) If the temperature of the oceans has ceased to rise at an ever-increasing rate, then the rate of global warming has increased. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (D) Strange weather effects have been shown to be due to the diachronic effects of hydrocarbon burning and not to increases in CFC. (E) Strange weather effects are caused by the increase use of CFCs, CO2, and similar gasses. 20. The author’s claim that, a simply synchronic whole earth measurement over three decades is but a blip in the diachronic history of ice age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years would be strengthened if the author (A) Indicated the minimum number of thermometers necessary for a whole earth measurement. (B) Described the factors that precipitated the start of a new ice age. (C) Compare synchronic whole earth measurements with diachronic whole earth measurements. (D) Proved that the mean number of years required to detect significant changes in weather patterns is greater than thirty. (E) Specified the exact location and quantity of thermometers placed by scientists around the globe. 21. By necessary, munitions plants hired many young woman during the war; at least as much as 500,00 and more others who had not any previous experience in factory work of any kind. A. at least as much as 500,000 and more others who had not any B. at least as much as more than 500,000 others who had no C. more than 500,000 had not any D. more than 500,000 had not no E. there were at least 500,000 or more others without any 22. The expansion of the influence of the Gregorian calendar system in non-European regions can be traced from European colonies such as India and Egypt, and the independent countries, replacing traditional calendars at least for official purposes. A. and B. to C. and to D. with E. in addition to For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 23. Canadian wheat farmers produced so much wheat over the last season that wheat prices plummeted. The government tried to boost wheat prices by offering farmers who agreed not to harvest 20 percent of their wheat field compensation up to a specified maximum per farm. The Canadian government's program, if successful, will not be a net burden on the budget. Which of the following, if true, is the best basis for an explanation of how this could be so? (A) If prices were allowed to remain low, the farms would be operating at a loss, causing the government to lose tax revenue on farm profits. (B) Wheat production in several countries declined the year that the compensation program went into effect in Canada. (C) The first year that the compensation program was in effect, wheat acreage in Canada was 5% below its level in the base year for the program. (D) The specified maximum per farm meant that for very large wheat farms the compensation was less per acre for those acres than they were for smaller farms. (E) Farmers who wished to qualify for compensation program could not use the land not harvested for wheat to grow another crop. 24. Eclampsia in pregnancy is especially prevalent among women who are seriously malnourished. In order to achieve early detection of eclampsia in these individuals, public health officials distributed pamphlets explaining the importance of early detection of this potentially fatal disease. Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of the use of the pamphlet as a method of achieving the public health officials’ goal? (A) Many prenatal diseases produce symptoms that cannot be detected by the patient. (B) Once Eclampsia has been detected, the effectiveness of treatment can vary from person to person. (C) The pamphlet was sent to all town residents, including those individuals who are not pregnant. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (D) Eclampsia is much more common in very young and very old mothers, rather than in those at the height of their productive years. (E) Pregnant women who are seriously malnourished are often homeless and thus unlikely to receive and read the pamphlet. 25. Technological improvements have made electric cars far more cost-efficient in the last decade. However, the threshold of economic viability for electric cars (that is, the cost of running an electric car compared to a gasoline powered car) has remained unchanged. Which of the following, if true, does most to help explain why the increased cost-efficiency of electric cars has not decreased its threshold of economic viability? (A) The cost of manufacturing gasoline-powered cars has fallen dramatically. (B) The reduction in the cost of manufacturing electric cars has occurred despite increased raw material costs for those cars. (C) Technological changes have increased the efficiency of gasoline-powered cars. (D) Most electricity is generated by coal-fired or nuclear, rather than oil-fired, power plants. (E) When the price of oil increases, reserves of oil not previously worth exploiting become economically viable. 26. It seemed that hardly any vote was cast on the Senate or House floor without some calculation as to how it might affect the midterm election. A. without some calculation as to how B. without there is some calculation as to how C. without that there is some calculation as to how D. without some calculation as how E. without some calculation to how 27. The acrimony in Washington, communicated to the general public to a large degree in sound-bite epithets from the principals on evening television newscasts, contributed to a sour mood between the electorate. A. contributed to a sour mood between the electorate. B. contributing to a sour mood between the electorate. C. contributed to a sour mood among the electorate. D. contributing to a sour mood among the electorate. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. contributing to a sour mood inside the electorate. 28. Generally, marine biologists enter their field with the goal of doing important new research. They expect their colleagues to have similar goals. Therefore, when any marine biologist becomes a household name in the field of documentary nature films, most other scientists conclude that this biologist should no longer be regarded as a true colleague. The explanation offered above for the low esteem in which marine biologists who make documentary films are held by research scientists assumes that (A) Serious scientific research is not a solitary activity, but relies on active cooperation among a group of colleagues (B) Research scientists tend not to regard as colleagues those scientists whose renown they envy (C) A scientist can become famous as a marine biologist who makes documentary films without having completed any important research (D) Research scientists believe that those who are well known as marine biologists who make documentary films are not motivated to do important new research (E) No important new research can be accessible to or accurately assessed by those who are not themselves scientists The following passage relates to questions 29-32. An Australian group named Action Council on Smoking and Health (ACSH) has recently lobbied to make warnings on cigarette packets more graphic. The council proposed that striking visual photos of diseased organs should be put on at least 50% of outside packaging, in conjunction with health warnings outlining smoking hazards enumerated in a separate leaflet placed inside the cigarette packet. The ACSH claim that bland and ineffectual warnings like "Smoking is a health hazard" currently found on cigarette packets are not nearly sufficient. Substituting those inadequate admonitions with explicit photos will provide a powerful visual stimulus to help smokers relinquish their habit. The current cautions on cigarette packets have little or no impact on smokers who have grown immune to For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org the warnings that focus on abstract tobacco related risks and illnesses from which smokers can easily disassociate themselves. The proposed new tactics would concentrate on the perspective of the individual smoker through a demonstration of what is occurring in his body each time he reaches for a cigarette, rather than a generic cautionary word of advise. The ACSH cited the results of recent studies conducted by psychologists at McKean University confirming that evidence related to one's own experience is more effective at influencing future behavior than a presentation of facts and figures. An further rationale for the addition of pictures to cigarette packages is the finding that smokers handle their packets 20-30 times a day, on average, thus, if graphic pictures on cigarette packets were introduced, smoker would have 20-30 chances to face the harsh reality of what damage they are doing to themselves each time they light up. Even more essential than the pictures on the outside label, ACSH strongly advocate including warnings and helpful information in a leaflet inserted into the packet of cigarettes. Even an analgesic, ACSH adds, found in every bathroom cabinet has all possible side effects enumerated in the insert. How much more imperative is it then when the substance in question is tobacco, a dried weed that contains highly noxious nicotine that society still accepts even though it kills one of every two of its users. Fundamentally, what is at stake here is consumer rights. Smokers should know what substances they are inhaling, and what damage they are inflicting to their bodies, though surprisingly, even today, many do not. For this reason alone, the recommendation for more graphic pictures and warnings on cigarette packets, which many seem excessive, is being seriously considered. 29. It can be inferred from the passage (A) That cigarette manufacturers would comply with regulations ordering them to add graphic pictures of diseased organs to their outside packaging. (B) That society will not continue to condone smoking if it is proven even more dangerous than was previously assumed. (C) That smoking cigarettes causes damage to the internal organs of the body. (D) That if the written warnings were less bland and ineffectual, smokers would not take more notice of them. (E) That smokers look at their cigarette packages each time they take out a cigarette. 30. The author cites studies conducted at McKean University to account for why (A) A presentation of facts and figures is more effective at influencing future behavior than evidence related to one's own experience. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (B) A presentation of facts and figures is less effective at influencing future behavior than evidence related to one's own experience. (C) Evidence related to one's own experience has a more long-lasting effect than future behavior. (D) The ACSH claim that graphic visual pictures of diseased organs would not be more effective than stating facts about the consequences to the body of long-term smoking. (E) The ACSH claim that graphic visual pictures of diseased organs would not be less effective than stating facts about the consequences to the body of long-term smoking. 31. Which of the following, if true, would be most useful in supporting the claims made by the ACSH? (A) There is firm evidence that information communicated in a textual format is more convincing than the same information conveyed in the form of visual depictions. (B) There is firm evidence that information conveyed in the form of visual depictions is more convincing than the same information communicated in a textual format. (C) A study of over 3000 individuals shows a statistically significant relationship between levels of nicotine in cigarettes and pulmonary damage. (D) A study of over 3000 individuals shows a statistically significant relationship between smoking and pulmonary damage. (E) A survey reveals that 79% of smokers look at their cigarette packages when taking out a cigarette. 32. The passage does NOT state which of the following about smoking warnings. (A) Current graphic warnings are effective. (B) The addition of graphic warnings would be an impetus to smokers to relinquish their habit. (C) Current written warnings are not adequate. (D) Current written warnings are not effective. (E) Current written warnings are not as exhaustive as those that accompany common analgesics. 33. According to a recent survey, the establishment of natural parks to preserve existing plant and animal life in Colorado is still a priority of a majority of residents, like that of earlier test groups. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. like that of earlier test groups B. at that for earlier test groups C. just as earlier test groups did D. as have earlier test groups E. as it was of earlier test groups 34. Named a member of the committee to draw up a Declaration of Independence, the basic draft was completed by Thomas Jefferson in a week. A. the basic draft was completed by Thomas Jefferson in a week. B. the basic draft Thomas Jefferson completed in a week. C. the basic draft was completed by Thomas Jefferson in a week. D. Thomas Jefferson completed the basic draft in a week. E. Thomas Jefferson in a week completed the basic draft. 35. Dr. Kevorkian, the so-called suicide doctor, on November 5 was imprisoned in Wayne County Jail in Detroit for his alleged role in the suicides of two men, and he then began a hunger strike. A. the so-called suicide doctor, on November 5 was imprisoned in Wayne County Jail in Detroit for B. the so-called suicide doctor, was imprisoned on November 5 in Wayne County Jail in Detroit for C. the called so suicide doctor, on November 5 was imprisoned in Wayne County Jail in Detroit for D. the called so suicide doctor, was imprisoned on November 5 in Wayne County Jail in Detroit for E. the so-called suicide doctor, on November 5 in Detroit was imprisoned in Wayne County Jail for 36. New stores financed by investors have a much lower failure rate than stores financed by other means. Source of financing, therefore, must be a more important causative factor in the success of a new store than are such factors as the location of the store, the quality of the staff, or the choice of merchandise. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (A) Investors tend to be more responsive than others to changes in a new store’s financial needs. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (B) The strategic planning of a new store is a less important factor in the long-term success of the business than are the personal characteristics of the owner. (C) More than half of all new stores close within three years. (D) The management of new stores is generally less formal than the management of ongoing stores. (E) Investors base their decisions to fund new stores on such factors as the personal characteristics of the owner, location of the store, and marketing goals. 37. The proportion of Afro-American students enrolled in Gilmore Community College has increased over the past decades. This is partly shown by the fact that in 1965, only 6 percent of Afro-American between twenty and twenty-three in the town of Gilmore were enrolled in college, while in 1997, 13 percent of the Afro-Americans between twenty and twenty-three were enrolled in Gilmore Community College. To evaluate the argument above, it would be most useful to compare 1965 and 1997 with regard to which of the following characteristics? (A) The percentage of Afro-American students between twenty and twenty-three who were not enrolled in Gilmore Community College (B) The percentage of Afro-American students between twenty and twenty-thirty who graduated from Gilmore Community College (C) The percentage of Afro-American students who, after attending Gilmore Community College, entered highly paid professions (D) The non-Afro-American students between twenty and twenty-three who were enrolled in Gilmore Community College (E) The percentage of -Afro-American students who graduated from high school 38. When three Indian-owned trains purchased from Transcontinental Trains crashed within a two month time period, the Indian parliament ordered the acquisition of three new Transcontinental trains as replacements. This decision surprised many because it is customary for users to shun a product after it is involved in accidents. Which of the following, if true, provides the best indication that the decision of the Indian government was well supported? (A) Although during the previous year only one transcontinental train crashed, competing manufacturers had a perfect safety record. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (B) The Transcontinental-built trains crashed due to sabotage, but because of the excellent quality of the trains, fire was averted increasing the number of survivors. (C) The Indian Railway Commission issued new guidelines for trains in order to standardize safety requirements governing inspections. (D) Consumer advocates pressured two major railway companies into purchasing safer trains so that the public would be safer. (E) Many Transcontinental Train employees had to be replaced because they found jobs with the competition. 39. The National Institute on Drug Abuse Warning Network reported an increase both in the number of admissions to hospital emergency rooms nationwide that involved drug abuse and a change in procedures used in rehabilitation clinics. A. reported an increase both in the number of admissions to hospital emergency rooms nationwide that involved drug abuse and a change in procedures used in rehabilitation clinics. B. reported both an increase in the number of admissions to hospital emergency rooms nationwide that involved drug abuse and a change in procedures C. reported an increase both in the number of admissions to hospital emergency rooms nationwide that involved drug abuse and procedures that changed D. reported an increase both in the numbers of admissions to hospital emergency rooms nationwide that involved drug abuse and a change in procedures E. reported both an increase in the number of admissions to emergency rooms of nationwide hospitals that involved drug abuse and a change in procedures 40. Recently, a court ruled that current law allows tour operators that travel to potentially dangerous locations, such as the Amazon, to reject a potential customers if there is a 50 percent chance that the traveler would contract malaria on the trip. The presiding judge justified the ruling, saying that it protected both travelers and tour operators. This use of his court ruling as part of the law could not be effective if which of the following were true? (A) The best interests of travelers often conflict with the interests of tour operators. (B) There is currently no legally accepted method existing for calculating the risk of contracting malaria as a result of being exposed to it in a particular location. (C) Some trips might involve health risks other than the risk of malaria. (D) Travelers who have a 50 percent chance of contracting malaria may be unaware that their risk is so great. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org (E) The number of people signing up to take trips with a tour company might decline if the company, by screening applicants for risk of malaria, seemed to suggest that the trip entailed high risk of getting the disease. 41. The World Bank, the only one of its kind, provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, and for projects from other public and private sources encourages co-financing. A. provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, and for projects from other public and private sources encourages co-financing. B. provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, and for projects from other public and private sources encouraging co-financing. C. provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, and for projects from other public and private sources encouraged co-financing. D. provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, and encourages co-financing for projects from other public and private sources. E. provides loans to developing member countries, gives technical assistance for development projects, but encourages co-financing for projects from other public and private sources. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Answers and explanations: 1. The best answer is C. The pronoun there is inappropriate because it refers to the singular noun phrase: any client, and must be replaced by his. 2. The best answer is D. The sentence has a plural subject, common stocks, therefore it needs the plural form of the verb: are. 3. The best answer is C. If electrifying crops kills beneficial insects along with the pests, it may do as much or more harm than good. 4. The best answer is D. If partners who are considering dissolution have been found to express hostility by adopting a different management style from that of their partners, then the different management styles are the result and not the cause of the discordance between the partners. 5. The best answer is B. If there is a possibility that monosodium glutamate will cause long-term harm, then the absence of symptoms cannot be taken as proof that Americans who consume monosodium glutamate regularly are not being harmed. 6. The best answer is C. The passage begins by presenting the viewpoint of those that believe that group-CMCs are true communities and continues by presenting an opposing view. D is incorrect because definitions, not hypotheses are discussed in the passage. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 7. The best answer is E. According to Simpson and Armstrong ignoring virtual communities would be a loss. In other word, virtual communities are invaluable. The word invaluable means very useful. 8. The best answer is A. The question asks you to identify what does NOT stop Weinreich from considering a virtual community a real community. An exchange of information is not problematic for Weinreich. 9. The best answer is E. The passage discusses whether group-CMCs are communities. Business Tech Magazine does not debate this issue because it has already assumed that they are. 10. The best answer is A. Choices B and D are incorrect because in a few inches is unidiomatic. In C, D and E the pronoun which is incorrectly used for a non-restrictive relative clause. 11. The best answer is E. The plural pronoun us was incorrect because it has the same referent as the pronoun one earlier in the sentence. 12. The best answer is A. The sentence makes correct use of a parallel structure. It will improve…, will make.., will reduce…, will give… 13. The best answer is E. The conclusion is based on an assumption that the safest chassis are still the heaviest ones, as they have been in the past. Choice E proves this assumption to be erroneous. 14. The best answer is C. Those objecting to the change claim that the advantage of Fasttech’s relatively low cost can be mitigated by hiring experience users of Marmacil semiconductor manufacturing equipment. However, if such people command much higher salaries as choice C states, doing so would not result in savings to the company. 15. The best answer is B. The manufacture’s conclusion was that reducing side effects was not the customers' primary consideration. Choice B states that customers consider older medication a better safety risk, so those customers bought the older diuretic out of safety considerations. 16. The best answer is C. The word concerned modifies the noun Christians. The preposition that goes with it is about. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 17. The best answer is B. The author questions the claim that there is indeed a greenhouse effect that is made worse by human actions. (A) is too general an answer, while (D) is too specific. (D) is wrong because it is probing whether scientists agree, not whether there the phenomenon actually exists. 18. The best answer is D. Scientists are basing their claims on global warning on rising ocean temperatures. One can tell if temperatures have in fact risen only by measuring them correctly. 19. The best answer is A. The author is questioning the cause and effect relationship between the increasingly large ozone hole and global warming, as well as cause and effect relationship between global warming and strange weather effects. 20. The best answer is D. If one knows that change can be detected only after much more than thirty years, then measurements taken over a thirty-year period is insignificant 21. The best answer is D. It is idiomatic, clear, and concise. Both A and B incorrectly use much rather than many. In A and C, not any is wordy and awkward. E redundantly uses at least and more. 22. The best answer is B. The construction can be traced from x must be completed by to y, as in choice B. 23. The best answer is A. The program will not be a net burden on the budget because money spent on compensation can be made up by money collected through taxation of the farms. 24. The best answer is E. The pamphlet is incapable of achieving the public health officials’ goal if it does not reach its target audience. 25. The best answer is C. Improvements in electric cars have been matched by improvements in gasoline-powered cars so that their economic viability has not improved. 26. The best answer is A. The construction as to is idiomatic. In d and E, the use of as alone or to alone is incorrect. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 27. The best answer is C. A and B are incorrect because of the use of between for more than two. B, D and E are incorrect because of the use of the gerund form of the word where the past form, contributed, is needed. 28. The best answer is D. The conclusion that biologists who make documentaries should no longer be regarded as true colleagues is based on the assumption that such biologists will not longer do important new research. 29. The best answer is C. We do not have information about (A) (B) and (D) from the passage. (E) is incorrect because the passage claims that smokers have an opportunity to look at their cigarette packages, not that they actually do. 30. The best answer is E. The author mentions the study as evidence presented by the ACSH to back their claim that visual pictures would be more effective than the present warning found on cigarette boxes. 31. The best answer is B. If smokers were more convinced of the dangers of smoker by pictures than by text, they would be more likely to be influenced by the pictures that the ACSH is proposing. 32. The best answer is A. The passage does not say that current graphic warnings are effective since there are currently no graphic warnings, only written ones. 33. The best answer is E. The intended comparison should be completed by a clause beginning with as and containing a subject and verb that correspond to the subject and verb of the main clause. 34. The best answer is D. The sentence starts with the adjectival phrase, Named a member of the committee to draw up a Declaration of Independence. That phrase is supposed to modify the noun that comes immediately after it, making A, B, and C incorrect. E is incorrect because in a week incorrectly comes between the noun and verb. 35. The best answer is B. B correctly removes on November 5 out from its incorrect place between the subject, Dr. Kevorkian, and the verb, was imprisoned. 36. The best answer is E. The argument is that source of financing must be a more important causative factor in the success of a new store than other factors. Choice E suggests that it is not the source of financing that makes the difference, rather that For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org investors are more likely to finance new stores in which the other factors -good locations, good quality of staff etc. -are good. 37. The best answer is D. The argument presents a substantial increase in the proportion of Afro-Americans between twenty and twenty-three who were enrolled in Gilmore Community College as evidence that there was an increase in the proportion of Gilmore Community College students who were Afro-Americans. This evidence would lack force if a similar increase in college enrollment had occurred among students who are not Afro-American. 38. The best answer is B. If the train crashes were caused by a factor that had nothing to do with the train itself, such as sabotage, and the quality of the train decreased the number of fatalities, then there is good reason to purchase additional trains from Transcontinental. 39. The best answer is B. Choice B correctly places the word both after the verb. 40. The best answer is B. The use of the court ruling as part of the law could not be effective if there were no accepted way of determining who the people susceptible to malaria were. Choice b states that there is no accepted method of calculating the risk of contracting malaria. 41. The best answer is B. Choices A, B and C all violate parallelism by putting the indirect object ahead of the verb, and for project from other public and private sources… The use of but in choice E is incorrect because encourages is not contrast to provides and gives. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org GMAT Verbal test 2 37 Questions 75 minutes These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Have a good GMAT exam. 1. The only way to captivate the audience is to surprise them constantly with new scenes and new actors before they completely lose interest in the play. A. to surprise them constantly with new scenes and new actors before they completely lose interest in the play. B. if they are surprised constantly with new scenes and new actors before they completely lose interest in the play. C. for them to be surprised constantly with new scenes and new actors before they completely lose interest in the play. D. if the audience is surprised constantly with new scenes and new actors before they completely lose interest in the play. E. to surprise it constantly with new scenes and new actors before it completely loses interest in the play. 2. The British colonies in North America attracted a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, coming from all parts of the British Isles, Germany, the Netherlands, and other countries. A. The British colonies in North America attracted a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, coming B. The British colonies in North America have attracted a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, coming C. The British colonies in North America has attracted a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, coming D. The British colonies in North America was attracting a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, coming E. The British colonies in North America have attracted a mass immigration of religious dissenters and poor people throughout the 17th and 18th centuries, to come 3. The highest number of structural fires in the country are in Buffalo, New York, which the cause of fourteen percent of them were deliberately set or are suspected of having been deliberately set. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. which the cause of fourteen percent of them were B. where the cause of fourteen percent of them were C. where fourteen percent of the fires were D. which has fourteen percent of the fires E. in which fourteen percent of them have fires 4. Since the national postal service in country X was privatized six months ago, delays in the delivery of mail have increased by 20 percent. To combat this problem, more sorting and delivering staff must be hired in the busiest regions of the country. Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the effectiveness of the solution proposed above? A. The major causes of delays in the nation's busiest regions are bad weather and antiquated sorting equipment. B. Since privatization began, the number of employees has increased by 25 percent. C. Over 60 percent of the postal budget goes to pay salaries. D. After a small post sorting facility doubled its staff, the number of delays that were reported decreased by 50 percent. E. Since privatization, the average length of delay in the nation's busiest regions has doubled. 5. Employees that get a thorough medical examination twice a year take fewer sick days. Even employees who get examined only once a year take less sick time than those who do not get checked. Therefore, if companies instituted in-house medical examination programs, the absentee rate in those companies would decrease significantly. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? A. Employees who get medical check ups during working hours occasionally feel ill for short periods of time after the examination. B. Employees who are frequently absent are the least likely to cooperate with a corporate medical program. C. Employees who get a thorough medical examination once a week in their company's medical program usually also get checked by their private doctor. D. Employees who get examined in their company's in-house medical program use their working time no more productively than those who do not get examined. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. Employees who get medical examinations during working hours take slightly longer lunch breaks than employees who do not get examinations. The following passage refers to questions 6 to 9. Gene therapy offers a new treatment paradigm for curing human disease. Rather than altering the disease phenotype by using agents that interact with gene products, or are themselves gene products, gene therapy can theoretically modify specific genes resulting in disease cure following a single administration. Initially gene therapy was envisioned for the treatment of genetic disorders, but is currently being studied for use with a wide range of diseases, including cancer, peripheral vascular disease, arthritis, Neurodegenerative disorders and other acquired diseases. Certain key elements are required for a successful gene therapy strategy. The most elementary of these is that the relevant gene be identified and cloned. Upon completion of the Human Genome Project, gene availability will be unlimited. Once identified and cloned, the next consideration must be expression of the gene. Questions pertaining to the efficiency of gene transfer and gene expression remain at the forefront of gene therapy research, with current debates revolving around the transfer of desired genes to appropriate cells, and then to obtaining sufficient levels of expression for disease treatment. With luck, future research on gene transfer and tissue-specific gene expression will resolve these issues for the majority of gene therapy protocols. Other important considerations for a gene therapy strategy include a sufficient understanding of the pathogenesis of the targeted disorder, potential side effects of the gene therapy treatment, and a more in depth understanding of the target cells which are to receive gene therapy. Gene transfer vector is the mechanism by which the gene is transferred into a cell. Currently there are at least 150 clinical gene therapy protocols worldwide. Since the approval process for these protocols is not as public outside the U.S., it is difficult to ascertain the exact number of worldwide protocols. As of December 1995, 1024 patients had been treated with either a gene transfer or gene therapy protocol. Much controversy exists regarding how many of these patients have benefited from their gene therapy, and no one has yet been cured. Public controversy in the field of human gene therapy is driven by several factors. Ordinary citizens as well as scientists easily understand the enormous potential of gene therapy, but the former may not appreciate all the pitfalls and uncertainly that lie in the immediate future. The financial interests of biotechnology firms and, some have asserted, the career interests of some gene therapists have encouraged extravagant, or at least overly optimistic public statements about contemporary gene therapy. In spite of the proliferation of protocols, the actual number of patients treated remains small, and only one genuinely controlled study of human gene therapy has been published as of this date. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 6. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the following as a possible obstacle to the introduction of gene therapy to mainstream medicine? A. Overly optimistic public statements given by scientists who have a vested interest B. The general public’s difficulty in grasping gene therapy’s vast potential. C. Unchecked financial interests of biotechnology firms. D. The relatively small number of controlled studies of human gene therapy published as of this date. E. Hazards of which the general public is currently unaware. 7. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as elements that are required for a successful gene therapy strategy EXCEPT: A. Identifying the relevant gene B. Expressing the relevant gene C. Determining the side effects of the relevant gene D. Understanding of the pathogenesis of the targeted disorder E. Gaining and a more in depth understanding of the target cells which are to receive gene therapy. 8. The author’s attitude toward the gene therapy as a future cure for cancer, peripheral vascular disease, arthritis, Neurodegenerative disorders and other acquired diseases is A. Indifference B. Disapproval C. Amusement D. Cautious optimism E. Censure 9. The primary function of the fifth paragraph is to A. Explain effects B. Recommend actions C. Identify problems D. Evaluate solutions E. Warn of consequences 10. Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans and so was probably very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time. A. Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans B. Old English had three genders resembling those of the Germans C. The three genders of Old English resembled a German’s For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. Old English’s three genders resembled the German’s E. The three genders of Old English that resembled those of the Germans 11. Linguistically, the Pokot seem to be related to numerous peoples who live in the region with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. A. with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. B. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. C. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. D. both with ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. E. both having ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa. 12. Having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques, chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they are attuned to peacemaking. A. chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they B. Dr. Swenson has come to believe that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other primates C. Dr. Swenson has now the belief that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other primates D. chimps and other primates are not longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they E. chimps and other primates are no more thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org The following passage refers to questions 13-16. Unlike the United States with its generalissimo politicians -Washington, Jackson, Grant, and Eisenhower-the ‘martial arts’ have been conspicuously absent from Canadian politics. The exception to the rule is former Prime Minister Pierre Elliot Trudeau, who became the first Canadian leader to bring a gunslinger ethos to Canadian politics. Trudeau introduced Canada to the refined art of single combat; it was the politics of “doing it my way”. Single-combat confrontation implied much more than the renegade in power did, and far less than the tricks of William Lyon Mackenzie King, prime minister intermittently between 1921 and 1948. Trudeau’s unique background prepared him for the role of authoritarian leader he would assume later in life. Born on October 18, 1919, Trudeau lived in French-speaking Montreal, but heard English at home from his mother, making it easy for the young politician to appeal to all sectors of Canada, a bilingual country. As a young man, he walked and cycled through Europe, finding himself on occasion on the wrong side of the bars in foreign jails. By 1940, Trudeau entered the law faculty at the University of Montreal. As a student he enlisted in the Canadian Officers Training Corps, where he was given a commission as a lieutenant, a rank he held until his retirement in 1947. Trudeau, a renowned sportsman, held a brown belt in karate, knew how to skin dive and could descend 150 feet off a cliff with ease. He continued performing flamboyant physical feats even in later life as Canada’s fifteenth prime minister, astounding Canadians with his prowess. The public’s adoration made it possible for him to practice his personal brand of ‘do it my way’ politics, initiating profound and long-lasting changes to his country. Other leaders would never have undertaken to deal with such taboo issues as divorce, abortion and homosexuality– matters likely to infuriate conservative Canada from coast to coast. Even the powerful Mackenzie King dared not touch any of the three, though Trudeau tackled them together in an omnibus bill as Minister of Justice under Lester B. Pearson. His reason for loosening legislation on these issues was, as he put poetically put it, "The state has no business in the bedrooms of the nation." The myths-makers have it that this was Trudeau's first deliberate ‘gun slinging’ move, performed with the ultimate goal of attaining national leadership. Contrary to popular belief, Trudeau had no leadership aspirations at the time; all he had was a passion for combat that eclipsed other religious considerations. Trudeau instigated far-reaching changes in legislation governing divorce, abortion and homosexuality that have had a major impact on Canada, shaping the country into what it is today. 13. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the following? A. Comparing two Canadian prime ministers and contrasting their personal style of leadership B. Describing the leadership style of one of Canada’s prime ministers C. Evaluating the success of the leadership style of one of Canada’s prime ministers D. Summarizing the contribution of one of Canada’s prime ministers For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. Tracing the long-term impact of legislation put forward by one of Canada’s prime ministers 14. It can be inferred from the passage that former Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King A. Was opposed to abortion and put forward legislation making it illegal B. Was opposed to abortion but did not put forward legislation making it illegal C. Was in favor of abortion and put forward legislation making it legal D. Was in favor of abortion but did not put forward legislation making it legal E. Did not put forward legislation making abortion legal 15. The author of the passage mentions Trudeau’s accomplishments in sports primarily in order to A. Explain the source of Trudeau’s physical stamina B. Illustrate that he had earned the adoration of the Canadian public C. Contrast it to his personal brand of ‘do it my way’ politics D. Provide one reason why he was able to single-handedly push through legislation that should normally have shocked conservative Canada E. Provide one reason why he was able to single-handedly thwart legislation that should normally have shocked conservative Canada 16. The quotation "The state has no business in the bedrooms of the nation," is most probably used to A. Present the opinion that the state should have less of a say in issues that are essentially not public matters B. Present the opinion that the state should have less of a say in issues that are essentially public matters C. Present the opinion that the state should have more of a say in issues that are essentially not personal matters D. Provide an example of Pierre Elliot Trudeau’s flamboyant style that he used to captivate the Canadian public E. Contrast Pierre Elliot Trudeau’s flamboyant style with that of Lester B. Pearson For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 17. In an attempt to discourage the widespread acceptance of clothing manufactured in sweatshops, the council of a small town plans to ban the sale of sweatshop goods for which substitutes manufactured under humane conditions exist. The council argues that non-sweatshop apparel is morally preferable. Which of the following, if true, indicates that the plan to ban the sale of sweatshop goods is ill suited to the town council's moral objectives? A. Although clothing manufactured in sweatshops is now available, members of the town council believe non-sweatshop apparel is better for workers in the clothing manufacturing business. B. The clothing factory at which most of the townspeople are employed plans to improve their working conditions. C. After other towns enacted similar bans on the sale of clothing manufactured in sweatshops, the benefits to workers in the clothing manufacturing business were not discernible for several years. D. Since most townspeople prefer clothing manufactured in sweatshops in many instances, they are likely to purchase them in neighboring towns where such goods are available for sale. E. Sweatshops sometimes produce items other than apparel. 18. Holden’s Ltd. two subsidiaries performed with remarkable consistency over the past five years: in each of those years, Lexton has accounted for roughly 30 percent of dollar sales and 60 percent of profits, and Stillmore for the balance. Which of the following can properly be inferred regarding the past five years from the statement above? A. Total dollar sales for each of the subsidiaries have remained roughly constant. B. Lexton has faced stiffer competition in its markets than has Stillmore. C. Stillmore has realized lower profits per dollar of sales than has Lexton. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. The product mix offered by each of the company's divisions has remained unchanged. E. Highly profitable products accounted for a higher percentage of Stillmore's sales than of those of Lexton. 19. Shereen cosmetics sometimes discounts the price of its premium eye shadows to retailers for a promotion period when the product is advertised to consumers. Such promotions often result in a dramatic increase in amount of premium eye shadows sold by the manufacturers to retailers. Nevertheless, the manufacturers could often make more profit by not holding the promotions. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the claim above about the manufacturers' profit? A. The amount of discount generally offered by manufacturers to retailers is carefully calculated to represent the minimum needed to draw consumers' attention to the eye shadows. B. For many consumer products the period of advertising discounted prices to consumers is about a week, not sufficiently long for consumers to become used to the sale price. C. For cosmetics that are not newly introduced, the purpose of such promotions is to keep the products in the minds of consumers and to attract consumers who are currently using competing products. D. During such a promotion retailers tend to accumulate in their warehouses inventory bought at discount; they then sell much of it later at their regular price. E. If a manufacturer fails to offer such promotions but its competitor offers them, that competitor will tend to attract consumers away from the manufacturer's product. 20. In the thirties and forties, devotees of Willa Cather’s maintained that her writing has all the qualities found in the highest order of American writers of the nineteenth and twentieth century. A. Cather’s maintained that her writing has B. Cather’s maintained that her writing had C. Cather’s have maintained that her writing had D. Cather maintained that her writing had F. Cather maintained that her writing has For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 21. William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment. A. increasing in their numbers, B. an increase in their numbers, C. their increase in numbers, D. an increasing in numbers, F. an increasing in the numbers of them, 22. The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow. A. enabling trees to grow. B. for the trees to grow. C. for growing trees. D. that enable the trees to grow. F. that the trees can grow. 23. People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. A. but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. B. but none can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. C. but not a one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. but no person can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. E. but none can dispute to their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. Questions 24-25 rely on the following passage: 24. New home buyers are all financially protected against bankruptcy of the contractor because of a law requiring the contractor to get bank backing to insure all individual investments. An economist argues that this insurance is partly responsible for the high rate of bankruptcies among contractors, since it removes from buyers any financial incentive to find out the financial status of the contractor they are hiring. If buyers were more selective, then contractors would need to be secure in order to compete for buyers. The economist's argument makes which of the following assumptions? A. Bankruptcy is caused when contractors default on loan repayments to their banks. B. A significant proportion of contractors use the services of sub-contractors to do the bulk of the work. C. The more a homebuyer has to invest in a house he or she is building, the more careful he or she tends to be in selecting a contractor. D. The difference in the payment schedules to contractors is not a significant factor in bankruptcies. E. People looking for a contractor to build their houses are able to determine which contractors are secure against bankruptcy. 25. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the economist's argument? A. Before the law requiring the contractor to get bank backing to insure all individual investments was passed, there was a lower rate of bankruptcy than there is now. B. When the law did not insure buyers against the bankruptcies of building contractors, frequent bankruptcies occurred as result of depositors' fears of investing money in a newly built house. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org C. Surveys show that a significant proportion of new home buyers are aware that their investments are protected by law. D. There is an upper limit on the amount of an individual's investment for which a contractor is required by law to get bank backing, but very few individuals' investments exceed this limit. E. The security of a contractor against bankruptcy depends on the percentage of its assets reinvested into the business. The following passage refers to questions 26-29. Art is visible. However, everything one sees is filtered through certain conditions, some of them historical, and others, natural. The historical conditions include the material, which is used — oil, colors, and the canvas; second, a certain style, i.e., a system of rules by which things visible are submitted a priori. There can be a general style, for example, the style of Impressionism, or a particular style, for example, the individual ways in which two painters, both impressionists, paint. The natural conditions include certain unchanging psychological laws of sight, for instance, the effects of colors or optical illusions. The conditions of art are nothing but a particular way of interpreting reality. To understand this, one can examine the difference between the classical Greek and the classical Egyptian styles. For the Greeks, the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears; for that reason they presented a person in his individual movements. For the Egyptians, however, this was only the appearance of a transitory moment, which, according to their beliefs, was not real. Therefore, the Egyptians searched for the permanent essence and the typical character in their depiction of an object. For the Egyptians, Greek art was an illusion; for the Greeks, on the other hand, Egyptian art was unrealistic constructivism. The way in which reality appears in art must not be regarded on its own. It is affected by many other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social — in short, all the phenomena of human life. Moreover, art is always of a certain epoch, with its particular conception of reality. Thus, when discussing, for example, the art of ancient myth, of medieval Christianity, or that of the technological age, one must be aware that myth, Christianity, or technology was the most salient feature of the epoch. It is paradoxical to understand art as some kind of copy of the fields of experience connected with it. So, for example, it is meaningless for the work of art as such if one compares the landscape of a painting with the landscape, which served the artist as his model. Even if the artist had tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, the landscape which he saw is only the matter from which something completely different emerges since he has submitted its view to the a priori conditions of art: namely to the material used (colors, canvas, etc.), to his style, and even to the fact that he paints on a flat surface. Thus one must contemplate a work of art by itself. Even if it is connected to other fields of experience it nevertheless displays something unique which appears in that piece of art and there alone. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 26. According to the passage, classical Egyptians did not present a person in his individual movements A. Because the Greeks believed that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears B. Because the Greeks did not believe that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears C. Because the Egyptians believed that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears D. Because the Egyptians did not believe that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears E. Because for the Egyptians, Greek art was an illusion. 27. The author mentions which of the following as one of the conditions through which art is seen? A. Impressionism B. Optical illusions C. Nature D. Perspective E. Illusions 28. By asserting that art is filtered through certain conditions (line???), the author suggests which of the following? A. Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, he would not succeed B. Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, it would be impossible to critique it C. Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, the landscape would be affected by many other systems of recognizing reality D. The way in which reality appears in art influences other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social E. The way in which reality appears in art is influenced by other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social 29. The author cites the example of psychological laws of sight, for instance, the effects of colors or optical illusions in order to illustrate A. Laws of nature, which are not affected by history B. Laws of nature, which are affected by history C. Laws of nature, which change history D. Laws of history, which are affected by nature For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. Laws of history, which are not affected by nature 30. Between 1990 and 1998, occupancy in Branson Hospital averaged 79 percent of capacity, while admission rates remained constant, at an average of 9 admissions per 100 beds per year. Between 1998 and 2002, however, occupancy rates increased to an average of 85 percent of capacity, while admission rates declined to 8 per 100 beds per year. Which of the following conclusions can be most properly drawn from the info given above? A. The average stay for Branson Hospital residents rose between 1998 and 2002. B. The proportion of children staying in Branson hospital was greater in 2002 than in 1990. C. Hospital admission rates tend to decline whenever occupancy rates rise. D. Hospitals built prior to 1998 generally had fewer beds than did hospitals built between 1998 and 2002. E. The more beds a nursing home has, the higher its occupancy rate is likely to be. 31. American customers expect high quality. When the quality of a manufactured product is raised, it in turn raises customer expectations. A company that believes that the quality of its products is satisfactory will soon discover that its customers are not similarly satisfied. The goal of Sunnybrook Corporation is to meet or exceed customer expectations. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Which of the following must be true on the basis of the statements above? A. Sunnybrook’s competitors will succeed in attracting customers only if those competitors adopt Sunnybrook’s goal as their own. B. A company that does not correctly forecast the expectations of its customers is certain to fail in advancing the quality of its products. C. It is possible to meet the goal of Sunnybrook Corporation only if the quality of their products can be continually improved upon. D. If a company becomes satisfied with the quality of the products it manufactures, then the quality is likely to decline. E. Sunnybrook’s customers are currently satisfied with the quality of its products. 32. According to a review of 38 studies of patients suffering from water retention, a large majority of the patients reported that fasting eased their suffering considerably. Yet fasting is not used to treat water retention even though the conventional medications often has serious side effects. Which of the following, if true, best explains the fact that fasting is not used as a treatment for water retention? A. For a small percentage of patients with water retention, fasting induces a temporary sense of nausea B. Getting patients with water retention to fast regularly is more difficult than getting healthy patients to do so. C. Fasting regularly over a long period of time can lead to temporary impairment of balance comparable to that induced by consuming several ounces of alcohol. D. The dramatic shifts in water retention connected with fasting have not been traced to particular changes in brain chemistry. E. The water retention returns in full force as soon as the fast is broken by even a small meal. 33. The more frequently employees that take a break for guided relaxation exercises during working hours each week, the fewer sick days they take. Even workers who take a guided relaxation break once a week during working hours take less sick leave than those who do not perform relaxation. Therefore, if companies started guided For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org relaxation programs, the absentee rate in those companies would decrease significantly. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? A. Employees who do guided relaxation exercises during working hours occasionally fall asleep for short periods of time after the exercises. B. Employees who are frequently absent are the least likely to cooperate with or to join a corporate relaxation program. C. Employees who do guided relaxation exercises only once a week in their company’s fitness program usually also do relaxation exercises at home. D. Employees who do guided relaxation exercises in their company’s relaxation program use their working time no more productively than those who do not do relaxation exercises. E. Employees do guided relaxation exercises during working hours take slightly longer lunch breaks than employees who do not do relaxation exercises. 34. Drinking milk enriched with vitamin D may significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for sufferers of heart disease, according to studies recently completed at the University of California in San Francisco. A. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for B. be significant in reducing the risk of rickets and aid for C. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and aid D. cause a significant reduction in the risk of rickets and aid to E. significantly reduce the risk of rickets as well as aiding 35. Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals. A. who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, B. whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, C. who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, D. that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, E. whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 36. As literary criticism grows more complex, students majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly successful at finding positions in the faculties of top universities. A. majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly B. who major in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are becoming more and more C. who majored in specialized areas such as those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are being increasingly D. who major in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming more and more E. having majored in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are being increasingly 37. The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species. A. in isolation from contact with humans longer than B. isolated from contact with humans longer than C. in isolation from contact with humans longer than were D. isolated from contact with humans longer than were E. in isolation and without contacts with humans longer than 38. Home insurance premiums are typically set after an appraiser assigns an official assessed value. Reassessments should be frequent in order to remove distortions that arise when property value changes at differential rates. In actual fact, however, properties are reassessed only when they stand to benefit the insurance company. In other words, a reassessment takes place when the most likely outcome is in increase in insurance premiums to the homeowner. Which of the following, if true, describes a situation in which a reassessment should occur but in unlikely to do so? A. Property values have risen sharply and uniformly. B. Property values have risen everywhere – some very sharply, some moderately. C. Property values have on the whole risen sharply; yet some have dropped slightly. D. Property values have on the whole dropped significantly; yet some have risen slightly. E. Property values have dropped significantly and uniformly. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 39. Although perioral dermatitis rashes are believed to be caused by reactions to Sodium Laurel Sulfate (SLS) found in shampoos and other personal care products, instructing patients to eliminate all products with SLS frequently does not stop the perioral dermatitis. Obviously, some other cause of perioral dermatitis besides reactions to SLS must exist. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above? A. Many personal care products elicit an allergic skin response only after several days, making it very difficult to observe links between specific products patients use and the perioral dermatitis they develop. B. Skin allergies affect many people who never develop the symptom of perioral dermatitis. C. Many patients report that the personal care products that cause them perioral dermatitis are among the products they most enjoy using. D. Very few patients have allergic skin reactions as children and then live rash-free adult lives once they have eliminated products to which they have been demonstrated to be allergic. E. Very rarely do personal care products cause patients to suffer a symptom more severe than that of perioral dermatitis rashes. 40. In prenatal testing for spina bifida, a life threatening disease, a false positive result indicates that an fetus has spina bifida when, in fact, it does not; a false negative result indicates that a fetus does not have spina bifida when, in fact, it does. To detect spina bifida most accurately, physicians should use the laboratory test that has the lowest proportion of false positive results. Which of the following, if true, gives the most support to the recommendation above? A. All laboratory tests to detect spina bifida have the same proportion of false negative results. B. The laboratory test that has the lowest proportions of false positive results causes the same minor side effects as do the other laboratory tests used to detect spina bifida. C. In treating spina bifida patients, it is essential to begin treatment as early as possible, since even a week of delay can result in loss of life. D. The proportion of inconclusive test results is equal for all laboratory tests used to detect spina bifida. E. The accepted treatment for spina bifida does not have damaging side effects. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 41. Health club membership has increased dramatically over the last five years. In order to take advantage of this increase, Fitness Express plans to open more of the same types of classes available during the week, while continuing its already very extensive advertising in newspapers and on the radio. Which of the following, if true, provides most support for the view that Fitness Express cannot increase membership to its gyms by adopting the plan outlined above? A. Although it fills all of the classes it opens, Fitness Express’s share of all health club memberships has declined over the last five years. B. Fitness Express’ number of classes offered to their clients has declined slightly over the last year. C. Advertising has made the name of Fitness Express widely known, but few customers know that Fitness Express health clubs also off acupuncture and shiatsu treatments. D. Fitness Express’s health clubs is one of three clubs that have together accounted for 88% of health club memberships. E. Despite a slight decline in membership price, sales of Fitness Express memberships have fallen in the last five years. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Answers and explanations: 1. The best answer is E. For parallelism, the linking verb is should like two infinitives: The only way to captivate….is to surprise, therefore B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because of the plural pronouns they and them, which do not agree with the singular noun audience. 2. The best answer is A. The correct form of the verb attracted is the past simple. 3. The best answer is C. Choice C uses a clear, direct, and economical adjective clause to indicate the percentage of fires that were deliberately set. 4. The best answer is A. The conclusion that postal service must add to their staff is based on an assumption that the problem lies in that area. Choice A indicates that the delay were due to two other factors – bad weather and old equipment, therefore hiring additional staff is unlikely to be an effective solution. 5. The best answer is B. The argument states that absenteeism would decrease if an in-house medical program were instituted. However, if those employees who are most frequently absent are least likely to get examined, then the program is unlikely to solve the problem of absenteeism. 6. The best answer is E. The passage states that both ordinary citizens and scientists understand potential of gene therapy, but the former, i.e. the general public may not appreciate all the pitfalls and uncertainty that lie in the immediate future. 7. The best answer is C. One must determine the side effects of the relevant gene therapy treatment, and not of the relevant gene itself. 8. The best answer is D. In the opening sentence, the author optimistically states that gene therapy offers a new treatment paradigm for curing human disease. However, in the fifth paragraph the author mentions some of the problems. 9. The best answer is C. The fifth paragraph is devoted to identifying various problems in the field today, such as the exaggerated claims made by biotechnological firms with vested financial interests. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 10. The best answer is B. The sentence requires a subject appropriate to both members of a compound predicate, the second member being and so was probably very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time. Old English makes a logical subject. A is incorrect because of the use of the pronoun that. In D is seems that the three genders belonged to one German. 11. The best answer is B. Choice B places the word both in the best place in the sentence. The Pokot are related both to… and to…. 12. The best answer is B. The noun that comes directly after the comma is modified by having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques. Answers A, D, and E illogically have the chimps observing other primates. 13. The best answer is B. The passage describes the ‘doing it my way’ type leadership style of former Prime Minister Pierre Elliot Trudeau. 14. The best answer is E. The passage states that Mackenzie King dared not touch the issue of abortion, so it can be inferred from the passage that he did not put forward any abortion legislation. The passage provides no information on what Mackenzie King’s opinions were on the subject. 15. The best answer is D. One of the ways Trudeau won the hearts and minds of the Canadian public was by astounding them with his physical prowess. Because the public was so awed by Trudeau as an individual, he was able to pass legislation considered progressive. 16. The best answer is A. Matters that concern “the bedrooms of the nation” are private matters. Trudeau sought to reduce government control in such matters. Answers (B) and (C) say the opposite, namely that government control in public matters 17. The best answer is D. If the town’s residents are likely to purchase the same items from another town, then the town council's objectives of limiting purchases of sweatshop manufactured clothing will not be met. 18. The best answer is C. If Lexton has accounted for roughly 30 percent of dollar sales and 60 percent of profits, then it has realized more profit per dollar of sales than Stillmore. There are not enough facts to support the inferences reached in the other answers. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 19. The best answer is D. According to choice D, the promotion does not bring about increased sales to the consumer, but a hoarding of the product by the retailer. Without the promotion, retailers would eventually buy the same numbers of the product at its full price, therefore, choice D supports the claim. 20. The best answer is D. The phrase devotees of Willa Cather presents a complete possessive without adding an apostrophe to her last name. Because the sentence describes a past event, the verb has in the present tense is incorrect. 21. The best answer is B. Choice B clearly and correctly uses parallel noun phrases to list the effects of Hornby’s actions: an increase in… a fortification of…. 22. The best answer is D. In choices B and C the preposition for is used unidiomaticly. In choice A the omission of the word the makes it sound as though these conditions are necessary for all trees. 23. The best answer is B. The use of none is idiomatically correct. Choice E is incorrect because dispute can only be followed by a direct object. 24. The best answer is E. The economist’s assumption is that what he is proposing can be implemented. If those people looking for a contractor are unable to determine which ones are secure against bankruptcy, then buyers do not have the option of being more selective in their choice of contractor. 25. The best answer is B. The argument that bank backing is partially responsible for the high rate of bank failures would be weakened if the bank backing to insure all individual investments also prevented certain contractor bankruptcies. Choice B suggests that it does prevent some bankruptcies and is thus the best answer. 26. The best answer is D. The Egyptians believed that the reality of the visible was not given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears. They thought that this was the appearance of a transitory moment, which was not real. 27. The best answer is B. The author states in the first paragraph that art is seen through natural conditions including optical illusions. 28. The best answer is E. The author states in paragraph three that the way in which reality appears in art is affected by many other systems of recognizing reality, For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social — in short, all the phenomena of human life. 29. The best answer is A. The author details two kinds of conditions, historical and natural. The natural conditions are said to be unchanging, therefore not affected by history. 30. The best answer is A. Choice A receives support from the fact stated above: between 1998 and 2002, Branson hospital occupancy rates rose though admission rats declined. 31. The best answer is C. Sunnybrook wishes to meet customer expectations, however these expectations are always being raised. Whatever the quality of Sunnybrook’s products, it will be possible to meet their goal only by continually improving their products. 32. The best answer is E. The longer one fasts, the more urgently a patient will need to eat. According to choice E, the water retention would then return in full force. This would explain why fasting is not used to treat water retention. 33. The best answer is B. Even supposing that increasing the frequency of relaxation leads to less sick time being taken, starting a company-supported relaxation program might not produce significantly lowered absentee rates if employees who are frequently absent would not cooperate with such a program. Choice B says that such cooperation is unlikely and is the best answer. 34. The best answer is C. Choices A, B and D each produce a clearly unintended meaning: by using aid as a noun rather than a verb, each creates a misleading parallel with the noun risk. Choice E lacks grammatical parallelism. 35. The best answer is E. The pronoun whose is the best way to link the dream with Robinson is a botanist. 36. The best answer is B. The phrase As literary criticism grows more complex introduces an ongoing condition that leads to consequences described in the rest of the sentence, which should be expressed with simple present-tense or present progressive. The use of like rather than such as is incorrect. In A, C, and D, those of is too wordy. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 37. The best answer is D. The phrasing of the comparisons in choices A, B, and E is incomplete, so the comparisons are ambiguous. Choice D employs concise, idiomatic phrasing to express a logically complete comparison. 38. The best answer is D. Distortions occur when property values change at differential rates. If most property values have dropped significantly, but some have risen slightly, a reassessment should occur but is unlikely to do so since it will not benefit the insurance companies. 39. The best answer is A. If it is difficult to determine which personal care products cause perioral dermatitis rashes, then some products that cause allergic reactions might not have been demonstrated to do so. Hence, if choice A is true, eliminating products that have been demonstrated to cause rashes might not eliminate the rashes, even if allergies to these types of products are the only cause of perioral dermatitis. 40. The best answer is A. Only if all tests have the same proportion of false negative results does the one with the lowest proportion of false positives become the most accurate. 41. The best answer is E. According to the information is choice E, Fitness Express has already failed to participate in the industry trend of greater sales despite their advertising campaign. Opening more of the same types of classes would therefore be unlikely to create more membership sales for Fitness Express. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org GMAT Verbal test 3 37 Questions 75 minutes These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. 1. In a psychological experiment conducted at South bay University, groups of men with various levels of education read stories in which people caused harm, some of them doing so intentionally, and some accidentally. When asked about appropriate penalization for those who had caused harm, the less educated men, unlike the educated ones, assigned punishments that did not vary according to whether the harm was done intentionally or accidentally. Uneducated men, then, do not regard people’s intentions as relevant to penalization. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above? A. In these stories, the severity of the harm produced was clearly stated. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org B. In interpreting these stories, the listeners had to draw on a relatively feminine sense of human psychology in order to tell whether harm was produced intentionally or accidentally. C. Relatively uneducated men are as likely to produce harm unintentionally as are more educated men. D. The more educated men assigned penalization in a way that closely resembled the way women had assign penalization in a similar experiment. E. The less educated men assigned penalization that varied according to the severity of the harm done by the agents in the stories. 2. More sports journals are sold in Hornby than in Milston. Therefore, the residents of Hornby are better informed about major sporting events than are the residents of Milston. Each of the following, if true, weakens the conclusion above EXCEPT: A. Hornby has a larger population than Milston. B. Most residents of Milston work in Hornby and buy their reading material there. C. The average newsstand price of journals sold in Hornby is lower than the average price of journals sold in Milston. D. A monthly journal restricted to the coverage of local events is published in Hornby. E. The average resident of Hornby spends less time reading sports journals than does the average resident of Milston. 3. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, Homo habilis roamed the earth, lived in semi-permanent camps, gathered food and shared their economy. A. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, B. Beginning 2.5 million years ago for a period of almost five thousand years, C. Beginning a period of almost five thousand years 2.5 million years ago, D. During five thousand years, a period beginning 2.5 million years ago, E. Over a period of five thousand years beginning 2.5 million years ago, 4. Despite protests from some share holders, committee members have ordered the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be undertaken. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be B. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program being C. the measure of levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and the advertising program to be D. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed with their advertising program being E. that the levels of department head involvement be curtailed and the advertising program be 5. Advances in networking technology and home computers have made it easy for millions of Americans to work in their homes, often facilitating the communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees. A. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees. B. communication between the manager, who continues the work on-site at the office, with his distant employees. C. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, to his distant employees. D. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, and his distant employees. E. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distance employees. The following passage refers to questions 6-9. For a generation of suppressed, restless, working-class youths living in 1960 Jamaica, ska was a medium through which they could find expression. Since its original appearance, ska has resurfaced twice, each time presenting itself in a different guise to a new generation of music aficionados. Overcoming its humble beginnings, it has become one of the twentieth century’s most enduring and influential styles of music. Since the early 1940's, Jamaica had adopted and adapted many forms of American musical styles. The predominantly black inhabitants of Jamaica took a liking to rhythm and blues music, importing a considerable number of American records that were showcased at dance halls in the early 1960s. Jamaican musicians took up the elements of rhythm and blues and combined it with traditional Jamaican mento music. The result was the first wave of ska. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Musically, ska is a shuffle rhythm similar to mento but with even closer ties to rhythm and blues, placing the accent on the second and fourth beats, often moving in a 12-bar blues frame. The after beat, played on the piano or strummed by a rhythm guitar, came to be characteristic of the form. A horn section, usually consisting of trumpets, trombones, and saxophones, was a vital element. Classic bands, such as the Wailers wrote songs written about Trench Town (a ghetto), rude boys (street thugs), romance, and even religious themes. In 1965, ska began to take a backseat to a newly evolved type of music, called rock steady, which was more dependent than ska had been on rhythm provided by the bass guitar and drums. Ska was later exported by traveling Jamaican artists to Great Britain, where it became known as "blue beat." By the mid 1970's, early British punk bands were infusing reggae, a style of music that came from rock steady, into their music. Near the end of the decade, however, there was a resurgence of the influence of ska because of its upbeat, danceable rhythm. This faster paced ska came to be known as two tone. One of the essential messages of two-tone ska was the promotion of racial harmony and of having fun in the face of subjugation. The third wave of ska began in America around 1990. Bands influenced by the two-tone ska scene began to use punk and metal music to a greater extent. The combination, which is much faster than two tone, sounds very different from the original Jamaican brand of ska. In its three different waves, ska has given voice to seemingly voiceless, downtrodden generations. Each time it resurfaces, a new message is taken up, however, the old messages are never forgotten. 6. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. Contrast the musical rhythm of two-tone music with original Jamaican ska from which it developed B. Illustrate various ways in which rhythm and blues has influenced ska music C. Outline the influences on the various forms of ska music from its inception in Jamaica in early 1960s through its third wave in the 1990s D. Describe events leading to the inception, rise and final demise of Jamaican ska music E. Trace to evolution of ska music from its inception in Jamaica in early 1960s through its third wave in the 1990s 7. According to the passage, Ska music has A. Been influenced by rhythm and blues, mento and blue beat B. Been influenced by rhythm and blues, and has influenced mento and rock steady C. Been influenced by rhythm and blues and rock steady and has influenced punk and metal musicians D. Influenced rhythm and blues, reggae and metal musicians. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. Been influenced by mento music and has influenced punk and metal musicians. 8. Which of the following statements about ska music is supported by information in the passage? A. Rock steady is more dependent than ska on the rhythm provided by the bass guitar and drums. B. Reggae, which counts ska as one of its primary influences, developed only after it was exported by traveling Jamaican artists to Great Britain C. Ska’s appeal over the last half century has been limited to voiceless, downtrodden generations. D. Two-tone is a faster paced form of ska that developed in the late 1970s E. Mento music places the accent on the second and fourth beats, often moving in a 12-bar blues-frame. 9. The passage suggests that two tone music I. Resurged near the end of the 1970s II. Influenced bands in America in the 1990s III. Promoted of racial harmony and of having fun in the face of oppression. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. II and III only E. I, and II, and III 10. Which of the following, best completes the passage below? At last month’s symposium on the increasing air pollution affecting the Beaumont forest, most participating members favored uniform controls on the quality of exhaust fumes, whether of not specific environmental damage could be attributed to a particular source of fumes. What must, of course, be shown, in order to avoid excessively restrictive controls, is that __________ . A. any uniform controls that are adopted are likely to be implemented without delay B. environmental damage already inflicted on the Beaumont forest is reversible C. the members favoring uniform controls are those representing bodies that generate the largest quantities of exhaust fumes D. all of any given pollutant that is to be controlled actually reaches Beaumont forest at present E. any substance to be made subject to controls can actually cause environmental damage For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 11. There are any number of skilled freelancers who can develop strategy and create marketing materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques. A. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques. B. with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also to developing new and innovative techniques. C. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques. D. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing now and innovative techniques. E. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, and also to developing now and innovative techniques. 12. The expedition did not enter the water-filled clearing because it believed that to do it endangers the rare Spanish moss hanging from the trees. A. to do it endangers B. doing it endangers C. to do this would endanger D. doing so would endanger E. to do it would endanger 13. The rising of costs of medication has created growing concern about the long-term threat the virus presents to human health on a national level. A. The rising of costs B. Rising costs C. The rising cost D. Because the rising cost E. Because of rising costs 14. Although the new cochleae manufactured by Medotech will cost more than twice as much as the cochlear implants now in use, Medotech implants should still be cost-effective. Not only will surgery and recovery time be reduced, but Medotech cochlear replacements should last longer, thereby reducing the need for further hospital stays. Which of the following must be studied in order to evaluate the argument presented above? A. The amount of time a patient spends in surgery versus the amount of time spent recovering from surgery. B. The amount by which the cost of producing Medotech cochlear replacements has declined with the introduction of the new technique for producing them. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org C. The degree to which the use of Medotech cochlear replacements is likely to reduce the need for repeat surgery when compared with the use of the replacements now in use. D. The degree to which the use of Medotech replacements are more carefully manufactured than are the replacements now in use, E. The amount by which Medotech will drop in cost as the production procedures become standardized and applicable on a larger scale. 15. Clarinet reeds often lose their freshness – become less responsive – after a few weeks of intense use. One clarinetist has hypothesized that a buildup of oil, rather than changes in the material properties of the reed, were responsible. Which of the following investigations is most likely to yield significant information that would help to evaluate the hypothesis? A. Determining what kind of wood is used to make the reeds used by jazz clarinetists. B. Determining whether jazz clarinetists make their reeds lose their freshness faster than do classical clarinetists. C. Determining whether identical lengths of reeds, of the same thickness, lose their freshness at different rates when put onto various brands of clarinets. D. Determining whether rubbing various substances on the new reed causes them to lose their freshness. E. Determining whether a fresh reed and one that has lost its freshness produce different qualities of sound 16. Many people claim that advertisements of alcoholic drinks influence young people to start drinking socially. In Iceland, however, where there has been a ban on the advertisement of alcoholic beverages since 1982, drinking is at least as prevalent among young people as it is in countries that do not have a similar ban. Which of the following statements draws the most reliable conclusion from the information above? For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. Advertising does not play a role in causing young people to start or continue drinking. B. Advertisements of alcoholic drinks cannot be the only factor that affects the prevalence of drinking among young people. C. Banning advertisements of alcoholic drinks does not reduce the consumption of alcoholic drinks. D. More youths drink if they are not exposed to advertisements of alcoholic drinks than if they are. E. Most youths who drank in 1982 did not stop when the ban on advertisements of alcoholic drinks was implemented. The following passage refers to questions 17-19. Coca-Cola, which sold 10 billion cases of soft drinks in 1992, now finds itself asking, where will sales of the next 10 billion cases come from? The answer lies overseas, where income levels and appetites for Western products are at an all time high. Often, the company that gets into a foreign market earliest dominates that country's market. Coke patriarch Robert Woodruff realized this and unleashed a brilliant ploy to make Coke the early bird in many of the major foreign markets. At the height of World War II, Woodruff proclaimed, “Wherever American boys were fighting, they'd be able to get a Coke.” By the time Pepsi tried to make its first international pitch in the 1950s, Coke had established its brand name along with a powerful distribution network. During the last 40 years, many new markets have emerged. In order to tap into these opportunities, both coke and Pepsi have attempted to find ways to cut through the red tape that thwarts their efforts to conduct business in these new regions. One key maneuver in the soda wars occurred in 1972, when Pepsi signed an agreement with the Soviet Union that made it the first Western product to be sold to consumers in Russia. This landmark agreement gave Pepsi the upper hand. At present, Pepsi has 23 plants in the former Soviet Union and is the leader in the soft-drink industry in Russia. It outsells Coca-Cola by a ratio of 6 to 1 and is seen there as a local brand, similar to Coke’s homegrown reputation in Japan. However, Pepsi has also encountered some obstacles. An expected increase in brand loyalty for Pepsi subsequent to its advertising blitz in Russia has not materialized, even though Pepsi produced commercials tailored to the Russian market and sponsored televised concerts. Some analysts believe that Pepsi’s domination of the Russian market has more to do with pricing. While Pepsi sells for 250 Rubles (about 25 cents) a bottle, Coca-Cola For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org sells for 450 Rubles. Likewise, Pepsi sells their 2 liter economy bottle for 1,300 Rubles, while Coca-Cola’s 1.5 liters is marketed at 1,800 rubles. On the other hand, Coca-Cola only made its first inroads into Russia 2 years ago. What's more, although Coca-Cola's bottle and label give it a high-class image, Russians do not perceive Coca-Cola as a premium brand in the Russian market. Consequently, it has so far been unable to capture a market share. 17. According to the passage, all of the following have been used to attract customers to buy a one of the two brands of soft drink mentioned in the passage EXCEPT A. Offering soft drinks for a limited time at specially reduced prices B. Sponsoring televised concerts C. Designing a bottle and label to create a high-class image D. Staging an advertising blitz including commercials tailored to the local market E. Being the first country to enter a foreign market 18. The passage suggests which of the following about the Russian soft drink market? A. Price is an unimportant factor in the Russian soft drink market B. Two liter economy bottles are more marketable than 1.5-liter economy bottles, especially those sporting a high-class image. C. One and a half liter economy bottles are more marketable than two liter economy bottles, if sold at a lower price. D. Russian consumers are more likely to purchase a product if the perceive it to be a local brand E. The Russian soft drink market is saturated with local brands. 19. The primary purpose of the passage is to A. Review the marketing history of two soft drink giants B. Contrast two different approaches to marketing soft drinks in the global market C. Refute the traditional explanation for Pepsi’s success in the Russian soft drink market D. Compare how well two soft drink companies have succeeded in a new foreign market E. Explain why two soft drink companies have succeeded in a new foreign market 20. Wheat has more nutritional value than rye. But since oats have more nutritional value than rice, it follows that wheat has more nutritional value than rice. Any of the following, if introduced into the argument as an additional premise, makes the argument above logically correct EXCEPT: For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. Wheat and oats have the same nutritional value. B. Rye has more nutritional value than oats. C. Rye has more nutritional value than rice. D. Rye and oats have the same nutritional value. E. Oats have more nutritional value than wheat 21. A famous painter has recently won a lawsuit against a major food manufacturer for commissioning a graphic designer to design the packaging of its chocolate chip cookies in the painter’s distinctive style. As a result of the lawsuit, manufacturers will stop asking graphic artists to copy distinctive painting styles. Therefore, the cost of package design will rise because employing the services of known artists cost more than those of graphic designer that imitate their style. The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions? A. Most people are unable to distinguish a famous artist’s illustration from that of a good graphic artist imitating the painter’s style. B. Manufacturers will use well-known painting styles in their packaging. C. The original version of some well-knows paintings are unavailable for use in packaging. D. Manufacturers will continue to use graphic artists to imitate the artistic style of famous painters. E. Packaging using a famous painter’s style usually sell better than packaging using the artistry of imitators. 22. While royal governor of New Jersey, William Franklin’s conviction that the colonies should remain part of England was not unlike that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred a continued association with England, though he For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org eventually played a role in forging America's independence, helping craft the Declaration of Independence after a change of heart A. not unlike that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred B. not unlike his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred C. like his father Benjamin Franklin, and his initial preference D. like that of his father Benjamin Franklin, for preferring E. as that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred 23. After adopting broadband internet access, wireless personal digital assistants, and super-fast home PCs, Weston Insurance has hired new employees, which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department working from home. A. which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department B. doubling to 250 the number of junior staff members in the claims department C. which doubles to 250 the junior staff of the claims department D. doubling to 250 the number of junior staff members of the claims department E. which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department that 24. The National Museum of American History owns Harley-Davidsons of various vintages on account of having evolved into an American touchstone. A. on account of having B. on account of their having C. because they have D. because of having E. because it has The following passage refers to questions 25-28. With the proliferation of electronic technologies in the latter part of the twentieth century, many aspects of cultural practice have been redefined. The eradication of physical boundaries that limit discourse and information access has had profound effects upon the manner in which we conduct democracy. Yet, opinions strongly differ over whether or not the growth of electronic networks will result in expanded democracy. On one side of the debate are anti-utopians who fear that with the intrusion of the Internet into many facets of life, personal freedom will be impeded and the existing rift between the "haves" and "have-nots" in society will grow. On the other side, many 'cyber-utopians' believe that new technologies can eliminate the democracy of elected representatives with which so many people are dissatisfied. The Internet, they say, will allow for a true participatory democracy in which citizens can govern themselves without the interference of bureaucrats and legislators. Neither of these theories by themselves can fully address the role of democracy in the age of information. As debates about censorship and encryption have shown, government regulation of the Internet can result in violations of the basic rights of speech set forth in the constitution of the United States. Yet, groups that preach ‘Big For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Brother’ theories of paranoia tend to neglect the fact that new technologies can help balance the injustices of traditional power found in a centralized government. At the same time, the likelihood of doing away with the present system of democracy in favor of complete and pure self-governance seems impossible, and likely undesirable. Both arguments about the future of the way in which discourse will occur highlight the inherent relationship between communication and democracy. Perhaps a more useful model for the study of this dynamic can be found in the model of the public sphere proposed by Jorgen Habermas. In this realm, free and diverse equals come together to deliberate and discuss pertinent issues without the impediment of external coercion. The ensuing dialogue transpires in a profoundly democratic forum. The dispensing of traditional hierarchies that occurs on the Internet appears to make possible the type of categories necessary for Habermas ‘ideal speech situation to occur. However, postmodern critics indicate that the autonomous individual no longer exists in a world where our identities are constructed as much for us as by us. And indeed, much of the postmodern notion of self seems to fit closely with reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies. The question that arises then is, how might the reconfiguration of communication enabled by the Internet work to create a new form of 'cyber-democracy’ that better represents citizens' interests? 25. According to the passage, the 'cyber-utopians' mentioned in the passage would most likely be in favor of which of the following innovations? A. Every new legislation would be voted by every registered voter on the Internet B. Government would increase the regulation of the Internet to include a curtailing of politically biased messages C. Government would decrease the regulation of the Internet including regulation of politically biased messages D. Discourse in legislative assemblies would be broadcast over the Internet E. New technologies would gradually replace all forms of democracy 26. The passage supports which of the following statements about government regulation of the Internet? A. Government regulation of the Internet can result in infringements upon citizen’s constitutional rights of free speech B. Government regulation of the Internet can ensure against infringements upon citizen’s constitutional rights of free speech C. Government regulation of the Internet will make pure self-governance possible D. Government regulation of the Internet will promote new technologies that can help balance the injustices of traditional power E. Government regulation of the Internet will eradicate physical boundaries that limit discourse and information 27. The author is primarily concerned with For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. Advocating the use of the electronic technologies to improve democracy B. Challenging the assumptions on which a theory of modern democracy is based C. Describing events leading to the discovery of democratic uses of electronic technologies D. Explaining the importance of electronic technologies to modern politics E. Examining the relationship between Internet communication and democracy 28. According to the passage, which of the following is considered by postmodern critics to be a threat to the notion of self? A. The interference of bureaucrats and legislators. B. The proliferation of electronic technologies. C. Reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies. D. Traditional hierarchies that occur on the Internet. E. The impediment of external coercion. 29. Excavations on the now uninhabited isle of Kelton reveal a scene typical of towns decimated by volcanic ash. Archaeologists have hypothesized that the destruction was due to volcanic activity known to have occurred in the vicinity of the island in 160 B. C. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the archaeologists’ hypothesis? A. No coins minted after 160 B.C. were found in Kelton, but coins minted before that year were found in abundance. B. Pieces of gold and pearl jewelry that are often found in graves dating from years preceding and following 160 B.C. were also found in several graves on the island. C. Most modern histories of the region mention that several major volcano eruptions occurred near the island in 160 B.C. D. Several small jugs carved in styles popular in the region in the century between 200 B.C. and 100 B.C. were found in Kelton. E. Drawings of the styles that were definitely used in the region after 160 B.C. were found in Kelton. 30. Many community colleges suffer declining enrollments during periods of economic recession. At government retraining programs, which are not provided free For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org of charge, enrollment figures boom during these periods when many people have less money and there is more competition for jobs. Each of the following, if true, helps to explain the enrollment increases in government retraining programs above EXCEPT: A. During periods of economic slowdown, government-retraining programs are more likely that community colleges to prepare their students for the jobs that are still available. B. During periods of economic prosperity, graduates of government retraining programs often continue their studies in community colleges. C. Tuition at most government retraining programs is a fraction of that at community colleges. D. Government retraining programs devote more resources than do other colleges to attracting those students especially affected by economic slowdowns. E. Students at government retraining programs, but not those at most community colleges, can control the cost of their studies by choosing the number of courses they take each term. 31. Parents of some of the children in a particular class have claimed that the teacher is not objective and favors his male students with higher grades. But the record showed that 92% of the female students received a passing grade in this teacher’s class. This record demonstrates that the teacher has not discriminated against women when assigning grades. The argument above is flawed in that it ignored the possibility that A. a large number of the teacher’s student were in his class the previous year. B. many teachers find it difficult to be objective when assigning grades to male and female students. C. the evidence shows that more than 92% of the female students should have received a passing grade. D. the majority of tests written by female students and that have been rechecked by another teacher were given a higher grade by the second teacher. E. the teacher is biased against female students in the case of only some of the subjects he teachers. 32. The number of young adults that are illiterate has dropped significantly in a certain county over the last fifteen years. Education officials attribute this decrease For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org entirely to improved conditions in the schools, which made for a better teaching environment, reducing the level of illiteracy. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the education officials’ explanation for the lower incidence of the disease? A. Many similar improvements in school conditions have been made over the last twenty-five years in the county. B. Home-schooling has not been more prevalent among the illiterate as compared to people who are not illiterate. C. Because of a new assessment scale, many people who until this year would have been considered illiterate are now considered low-level readers. D. The same percentage of the population has been tested every year for the last 30 years. E. The conditions in the schools were brought up to the standards of the neighboring counties twenty years ago. 33. The U.S. Forest Service, then five years old, decided to put out every fire in its domain, and within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past. A. within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past. B. within three decades the agency has formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past. C. within three decades the agency had formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past. D. within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished more quickly than they had been in the past. E. within three decades the agency has formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished more quickly than they had been in the past. 34. Able to out-navigate other vehicles on rutted roads, it was decided that the police chief would allot motorcycles to some of her staff. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. it was decided that the motorcycle would by the police chief to allot motorcycles to some of her staff. B. the decision of the police chief was to allot to some of her staff motorcycles C. the police chief decided to allot to her staff motorcycles D. some of her staff was allotted motorcycles by the police chief E. motorcycles were allotted to some of the staff by the police chief. 35. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, buff his palm-plank surfboard with carnauba palm wax and watch a palm-fringed sunset. A. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, B. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relaxing in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, C. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe were marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, D. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe were marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relaxing in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, to relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, The following passage refers to questions 36-39. Men are primarily and secondarily socialized into believing certain characteristics are definitive in determining their masculinity. These characteristics range from playing violently to not crying when they are injured. The socialization of masculinity in our society begins as early as the first stages of infancy, with awareness of adult gender role differences being internalized by children as young as two years old. Studies show that advertising imagery equates masculinity with violence by portraying the trait of aggression as instrumental to establishing their masculinity. Lee Bowker, who researched the influence of advertisements on youth, asserts that toy advertisements featuring only boys depict aggressive behavior and that the aggressive behavior produces positive consequences more often than negative. Bowker also looked at commercials with boys that contain references to domination. His results indicated that 68.6% of the commercials positioned toward boys contain incidents of verbal and physical aggression. However there were no cross gender displays of aggressive behavior. Interestingly, not one single-sex commercial featuring girls showed any act of aggression. Bowker’s research helps explain that it is not just the reinforcement of a child’s close caretakers that lends legitimacy to aggressive masculine tendencies but society as a whole, using the medium of television. William Pollack, a Harvard clinical psychologist, talks about how males have been put in a "gender straightjacket" that leads to anger, despair and often violence. Pollack states that society asks men to put a whole range of feelings and emotions behind a mask and shames them if they display any emotion. Pollack contends that boys are ‘shame phobic’, even killing, in extreme cases, to avoid dishonor. It appears that the standard defined by society allows men to express their emotion only through anger. Ironically, though these rigid stereotypes of what it means to be a man have been inculcated from an early age, men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in their behavior and emotions. Women often verbalize a desire for males to be sensitive and express their emotions. But male insensitivity is the culmination of a societal indoctrination begun at birth. Realistically, men are in a damned if they do, damned if they don’t situation. If they fail to show their emotions, they are berated for being detached from the essence of what constitutes a human being. On the other hand, if a male decides to expose his emotions, he is often branded effeminate and regarded as inferior to other males who stick closer to their gender’s traditional doctrine. 36. According to the passage, the television commercials examined by Bowker A. Showed boys in more acts of verbal and physical aggression than of domination B. Showed boys in more acts of domination than of verbal and physical aggression C. Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other boys For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other girls E. Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression towards other boys and girls 37. According to Pollack, one of the reasons for male violence is that A. Society shames men who display feelings and emotions other than anger B. Men kill in extreme cases to avoid dishonor C. Men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in their behavior and emotions D. Society uses television as a symbol of its desires E. Reinforcement from child’s close caretakers lends legitimacy to aggressive masculine behavior 38. The passage suggests that, when compared with television advertisement featuring boys, advertisements that had only girls were found A. To have more references to domination B. To be 68.6% less aggressive C. To be remarkably similar in focus and content D. To be replete with extensive examples of cross gender aggression E. To be void of any acts of aggression 39. In many hospitals, more and more monitoring is being carried out by automated equipment instead of human employees who previous carried out the work. This is done in an attempt to save hospital expenses. However, many employees who lose their jobs to automation will need government assistance to get by, and the same corporations that are laying people off will eventually pay for that assistance through increased taxes and unemployment insurance payments. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the author’s argument? A. Most of the new jobs created by automated equipment pay less than the jobs that were eliminated by automated equipment did. B. Many hospitals that have failed to automate have seen their profits decline. C. Unemployment insurance and taxes are paid also by corporations that are not automating. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. Many workers who have already lost their jobs to automated equipment have been unable to find new employment. E. The initial investment in machinery for automated equipment is often greater than the short-term savings in labor costs. 40. While some economists believe that Germany should be warned by the European Commission that it could face the imposition of radical restrictions on its domestic fiscal policymaking as early as the beginning of next year, others say that Germany will take the warning seriously only if it would be backed by sanctions. A. only if it would be backed by sanctions. B. only if it is backed by sanctions. C. if it is backed only by sanctions. D. if it was only backed by sanctions. E. if it would only be backed by sanctions. 41. Unlike musical talent or other creative skills, there is a disinclination on the part of many participants in the program to acknowledge the degree to which their writing talents are weak. A. Unlike musical talent or other creative skills, there is a disinclination on the part of many participants in the program to acknowledge the degree to which their writing talents are weak. B. Unlike musical talent or other creative skills, which they admit they lack, many participants in the program are disinclined to acknowledge that their writing talents are weak. C. Unlike musical talent or other creative skills, writing talents bring out a disinclination in many participants in the program to acknowledge that they are weak to a degree. D. Many people in the program, willing to admit that they lack musical talent or other creative skills, are disinclined to acknowledge that their writing skills are weak. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org E. Many people in the program have a disinclination to acknowledge the weakness of their writing talents while willing to admit their lack of musical talent or other creative skills. Answers and explanations: 1. The best answer is B. Choice B indicates that less educated men might be unable to tell whether the harm in the stories was produced intentionally. Thus, even if less educated men do regard people’s intentions as relevant, they might be unable to apply this criterion here. B, therefore, undermines the conclusion’s support. 2. The best answer is C. The price differential noted in C might help to explain the difference in sales, but it does not undermine the conclusion based on the difference. Therefore, C is the best answer. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 3. The best answer is E. Choice E is precise and idiomatically phrased. Choice A is illogical because it refers grammatically to Homo habilis. Choice B is less clear and direct. 4. The best answer is E. Choice E clearly and correctly uses parallel phrases: the levels of department head involvement be…. The advertising program be….. 5. The best answer is D. The communication has to be between the manager and his employee. 6. The best answer is E. The passage follows the development of ska. (D) is incorrect because the passage does not deal with the demise, or death, of ska music. 7. The best answer is E. Ska music has been influenced, among other things, by mento music. In paragraph five, it is mentioned that ska musicians have influenced both punk and metal musicians. 8. The best answer is D. In paragraph four, it says that this faster paced ska came to be known as two tone. 9. The best answer is E. (E) is the best choice because all of the facts presented above are supported by the passage. 10. The best answer is E. If a subject that causes no environmental damage were subject to controls, those controls would be more restrictive than necessary. 11. The best answer is C. Choice C correctly develops the parallel not only… but also…. 12. The best answer is D. Choice D appropriately used the adverb so to refer back to the verb accord. 13. The best answer is C. Choice A is unidiomatic, and B costs…has lacks subject-verb agreement. Choices D and E produce sentence fragments since Because makes the clause subordinate rather than independent. 14. The best answer is C. To evaluate the argument it must be determined whether these savings will compensate for the increased cost. Therefore, study of the expected reduction in the need for further hospital stays is needed. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 15. The best answer is D. The hypothesis has two parts: first, that intense use does not bring material changes that cause the reed to lose its freshness and, second, that oil causes the phenomenon. The experiment suggested in choice D directly test this hypothesis by contaminating strings that are known to have their original material properties. 16. The best answer is B. If advertisements of alcoholic drinks were the only factor that affected young people’s drinking habits, there would be a difference in the prevalence of drinking between countries that ban such advertising and those that do not. According to the passage, there is no difference, so advertisements of alcoholic drinks cannot be the only factor. 17. The best answer is A. Answers (b), (C), (D) and (E) are all mentioned in the passage as ploys used by either Pepsi or Coca Cola to attract new customers 18. The best answer is D. The passage states that one of the factors contributing to Pepsi’s success in Russia is its perception by the public as a local brand. 19. The best answer is D. The passage mainly compares Pepsi’s success in a new foreign market, Russia, with Coca Cola’s relative failure. (A) is too general. (B) is incorrect because both companies have the same general approach. 20. The best answer is E. The question asks for a different premise that does not make the argument logically correct. Choice A leaves open the possibility that the conclusion of the argument is false. 21. The best answer is B. If choice E were not assumed, the costs of the services of the famous painters would not be said to affect packaging costs. Since packaging costs are, however, projected to rise because of the relatively high cost of famous painters’ services, choice E is assumed and is the best answer. 22. The best answer is A. Choices B and C present faulty comparisons, comparing William’s conviction with Benjamin Franklin himself. Choice D does not make clear whether is was the father or the son who helped craft the Declaration of Independence. Choice E incorrectly uses as to compare two noun phrases. 23. The best answer is B. The pronoun which should be used to refer to a previously mentioned noun, not to the idea expressed in an entire clause. In A, C, and E there is no specific noun. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 24. The best answer is C. As used in choices A, B, and D, the phrases on account of and because of are unidiomatic. Choice E has a subject-verb agreement problem. 25. The best answer is A. According to the passage, 'cyber-utopians' believe that through using the Internet, there could be a true participatory democracy, meaning that all citizens, not just elected representatives could make legislative decisions. 26. The best answer is A. As stated in paragraph three, government regulation of the Internet can result in violations of the basic rights of speech set forth in the constitution. 27. The best answer is E. The answer is not (A) because the author does not reach any conclusions. (D) is incorrect because it does not discuss modern politics in general. 28. The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, it says that much of the postmodern notion of self seems to fit closely with reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies. 29. The best answer is A. The archeologist hypothesized that Kelton was decimated by volcanic ash in 160 B.C. Since A provides evidence that 160 B.C. was the date when life in Kelton was disrupted, A supports the hypothesis. 30. The best answer is B. Choice B might explain the decreased enrollment at community colleges during the slowdown, but because it deals with graduates of government retraining programs it cannot explain why enrollment at these colleges might increase. 31. The best answer is C. The flaw in the argument is that it assumes erroneously that a large percentage of female students who pass this teacher’s class demonstrates absence of discriminatory behavior against women on the part of the teacher who gave the grade. Choice E exposes this flaw by pointing out that the judge may well have failed to pass a female student in cases where evidence shows that the student should have passed. 32. The best answer is C. The education officials assume that the decrease in the number of people who are illiterate reflects a diminution in cases of illiteracy. By pointing out that this assumption is false, choice C undermines the officials’ explanation. 33. The best answer is D. Choices D and E correctly use the adverbial phrase more quickly than. E is incorrect because of the unwarranted use of the present perfect tense. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 34. The best answer is E. Grammatically, the participial phrase beginning with able to must modify the subject of the main clause. The word motorcycles has to follow the comma to become the subject of that clause. 35. The best answer is C. The sentence starts with the word if setting up a conditional situation. The correct form of to be with a conditional is were. 36. The best answer is C. Bowker’s research did not find any cross gender displays of aggressive behavior, i.e. aggression of one gender to another 37. The best answer is A. (B) is incorrect because it does not give a reason for violence. (C) is a result of the conditioning that leads to violence, not a reason. (D) and (E) are incorrect because they are not opinions expressed by Pollack. 38. The best answer is E. Bowker found that not one single-sex commercial featuring girls showed any act of aggression. 39. The best answer is D. The threat envisioned by the author to the economic survival of workers displaced by automation will be serious only if they cannot find new jobs. Choice A states that there are already workers that cannot find employment, and so strengthens the author’s argument. 40. The best answer is B. In sentences expressing a conditional result (X will happen if Y happens), the verb of the main clause should be in the future tense and the verb of the if clause should be in the present indicative. Thus, is backed (in B) is consistent with will take. 41. The best answer is D. Choice A illogically compared talents to a disinclination. B compares talent to many people in the program. Choice C is awkward and unidiomatic. In E, have a disinclination… while willing is grammatically incomplete, and admit their lack should be admit to their lack. GMAT Verbal test 4 37 Questions 75 minutes For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 1999 to 2003. The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals. RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered. For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com Have a good GMAT exam. 1. What was as remarkable as the development of the after-school enrichment programs has been New York City's nonprofit Chess-in-the-Schools initiative, giving more girls than ever before the opportunity to learn the rules of the game. A. What was as remarkable as the development of the after-school enrichment programs B. The thing that was as remarkable as developing the after-school enrichment programs C. No less remarkable than the development of the after-school enrichment programs D. Developing the after-school enrichment programs has been none the less remarkable than E. Development of the after-school enrichment programs has been no less remarkable as 2. The increase in land area which the virus has colonized suggest that birds are the more usual host for the virus, strengthening researchers’ original contention that migratory birds have contributed to the virus's spread across the nation. A. suggest that birds are the more usual host for the virus, For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org B. suggest that birds are the more usual host to the virus, C. suggests that birds are the more usual host for the virus, D. suggests that birds are the more usually host for the virus, E. suggests that birds are the more usually host of the virus, 3. The Burmese ferret badger burrows its home in the ground. Based on the fact that different local populations of Burmese ferret badgers of the same species dig homes of different styles, zoologists have concluded that the badgers building styles are a culturally acquired, rather than a genetically transmitted, trait. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the zoologists? A. There are more common characteristics than there are differences among the Burmese ferret badger’s styles of the local Burmese ferret badger population that has been studied most extensively. B. Young Burmese ferret badgers are inept at digging burrows and apparently spend years watching their elders before becoming accomplished in the local style. C. The homes of one species of badger lack the characteristics of the homes of most other species of badger. D. Burmese ferret badgers are found only in Burma and India, where local populations of the badgers apparently seldom have contact with one another. E. It is well known that the squeals of some badgers are learned rather than transmitted genetically. 4. In some cities, many potters have been winning acclaim as artists. But since pottery must be useful, potters must exercise their craft with an eye to the practical utility of their product. For this reason, pottery is not an art. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Which of the following, is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reason given for that conclusion? A. Some plates, bowl and vessels are made to be placed in museums where they will not be used by anyone. B. Some potters are more concerned than others with the practical utility of the products they produce. C. Potters should be more concerned with the practical utility of their products than they currently are. D. Artists are not concerned with the monetary value of their products. E. An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the objects’ practical utility. 5. Over his 65-year life span, Hughes, one of America’s most enduring writers and a key figure in the Harlem Renaissance of the 1920’s, will have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. A. will have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. B. is publishing hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. C. would have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. D. will publish hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. E. would publish hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books. 6. Of all the possible disasters that threaten the upcoming Olympic games, the possibility of forceful winds affecting the rowing venue is maybe the more difficult for analysis. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis. B. is probably the most difficult for analysis. C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis. D. is probably the more difficult for analysis. E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult. 7. A warrant was issued on Sunday by a New York prosecutor for the arrest of Henry Urick, until recently chairman of the mobile telecommunications company Telecom, including eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. A. including eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. B. along with eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. C. and including eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. D. for eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. E. and for including eleven other people connected with his family's business empire. The following passage refers to questions 8-10. Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993 World Trade Center bombing. In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence. Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection, any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity, thereby subverting the presumption of innocence. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no constitutional right. 8. The primary purpose of the passage is to A. Enumerate reasons why anonymous juries are unconstitutional B. Discuss whether anonymous juries are an infringement of the sixth amendment C. Identify a shortcoming in a scholarly approach to jurisprudence D. Define the concept of anonymous juries and explore efforts taken over the last twenty years to increase their use E. Review strategies for ensuring that anonymous juries will not infringe on the constitutional right to a fair trial of one’s peers 9. It can be inferred from the passage that a jurors ethnic background and religious affiliation A. Is considered by defendants not to have a significant effect on the outcome of their trials B. Is considered by defendants to have a significant effect on the outcome of their trials C. Would be unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial D. Is considered by attorneys likely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial E. Is considered by attorneys unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial in a widely publicized case 10. One function of the fourth paragraph of the passage is to A. Qualify the extent to which a previously introduced viewpoint may be relevant B. Expose the flaw in a criticism put forth in a previous paragraph C. Introduce information that supports a theory put forth in a previous paragraph D. Support an argument in favor of a given interpretation of a situation E. Show the chain of reasoning that led to the conclusions of a specific study For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 11. Activity levels of the green iguana vary in cycles that are repeated every 24 hours. It is logical to assume that alteration in the intensity of incident light is the stimulus that controls these daily biological rhythms. But there is much evidence to contradict this hypothesis. Which of the following, if known, is evidence that contradicts the hypothesis stated above? A. The temperature of the green iguana varies throughout the day, with the maximum occurring in the late afternoon and the minimum in the morning. B. While some animals, such as the rabbit, are much more active during the day, others, such as moles, show greater activity at night. C. When animals are transported from one time zone to another, their daily biological rhythms adjust in a matter of days to the periods of sunlight and darkness in the new zone. D. Other types of iguanas display similar activity cycles even though they live in very different climates. E. Even when exposed to constant light intensity around the clock, some iguanas display rates of activity that are much greater during daylight hours than at night. 12. Researchers recently discovered that lipstick can become contaminated with bacteria that causes mononucleosis. They found that contamination usually occurs after the lipstick has been used for six months. For that reason, women should dispose of any lipstick after six months of use. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion above? A. The researchers could not discover why lipstick contamination usually occurred only after six months of use. B. The researchers failed to investigate contamination of lipstick by viruses, yeasts, and other pathogenic microorganisms. C. The researchers found that among women who used lipstick contaminated with bacteria that causes mononucleosis, the incidence of these diseases was no higher than among people who used uncontaminated lipsticks. D. The researchers found that people who wiped their lipsticks clean after each use were as likely to have contaminated lipsticks as were people who never wiped their lipsticks. E. The researchers found that, after six weeks of use, greater length of use of a lipstick did not correlate with a higher number of bacteria being present. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 13. Unlike the wholesale price of uncut diamonds, the wholesale price of other uncut gemstones has fallen considerably in the last year. Thus, although the retail price of jewelry made with gemstones other than diamonds has not yet fallen, it will inevitably fall. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? A. The cost of processing uncut gemstones has increased during the last year. B. The wholesale price of uncut diamonds is typically higher than that of the same volume of other uncut gemstones. C. The operating costs of the average retail jewelry store have remained constant during the last year. D. The cost of mining gemstones other than diamonds has increased in the last year. E. Changes in retail prices always lag behind changes in wholesale prices. 14. Having seen first-hand this recipe for disaster, Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, promoted by the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund and the World Trade Organization. A. Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, B. Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should being liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, C. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to make clear that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, D. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to make clear that poor nations should being liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, E. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to clarify that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, 15. The exhibition of ancient Egyptian funerary art — imposing statues, intricately painted coffins, and numerous accoutrements, drew hundreds of people each day, equivalent to the number of visitors to last year’s Impressionist show. A. equivalent to the number of visitors to last year’s Impressionist show. B. the equivalent of those that visited last year’s Impressionist show. C. equal to those who visited For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org D. as many as the visitation to E. as many as visited 16. Mahatma Gandhi’s is credited as having championed a nonviolent approach to reform as a practical and moral means to struggle against social injustice. A. as having B. with having C. to have D. as the one who E. for being the one who 17. Denying that one of its many irregularities had been the long-term mismanaging of company funds, the AD & M company produced clear evidence to back its claim. A. its many irregularities had been the long-term B. its many irregularities has been the long-term C. its many irregularities is the long-term D. their many irregularities is the long-term E. their many irregularities had been the long-term 18. A company has initiated a health program for its employees that enables the worker, free of charge, to receive a monthly massage treatment, consult with a dietician and attend lectures in healthy living. These programs increase worker productivity and absenteeism for employee health care. Therefore, these programs provide as much benefit to the company as they do to the employees. Which of the following, if true, most significantly strengthens the conclusion above? A. Health programs are often the most popular services offered to employees. B. Studies have show that such health programs are not effective for many people. C. Regular massage treatments and dietary counseling reduce people’s risk of catching a flu or a cold and provides them with increased energy. D. Dizziness sometimes results from beginning a course of massage treatments. E. Employee assistance programs require companies to hire people to supervise the various programs offered. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Questions 19-20 relate on the following passage: 19. Interviewer: An alarming statistic reported in the Hobern Medical Journal is that 90 percent of the people in this country now report that they know someone who has heart disease. Dr. Summer: But an expected level of heart disease is 5 percent, or in other words, 1 out of every 20 people. So at any given time if a person knows approximately 50 people, 1 or more will very likely suffer from heart disease. Dr. Summer’s argument is structured to lead to which of the following conclusion? A. The fact that 90 percent of the people know someone who suffers from heart disease is not an indication that heart disease is abnormally high. B. The current level of heart disease is not moderate. C. If at least 5 percent of the population suffered from heart disease, the result of questioning a representative group of people cannot be the percentage the interviewer cites. D. It is unlikely that the people whose statements the interviewer cites are giving accurate reports. E. If a person with heart disease is given as a certain percent, the actual percentage of those with heart disease is even higher. 20. Dr, Summer’s argument relies on the assumption that A. Normal levels of heart disease are rarely exceeded B. Heart disease is not normally concentrated in geographically isolated segments of the population. C. The number of people who each know someone who suffers from heart disease is always higher than 90 percent of the population D. The interviewer is not consciously distorting the statistics he presents E. Knowledge that a personal acquaintance has heart disease generates more fear of getting heart disease than does knowledge of heart disease statistics. The following passage refers to questions 21-24. Alexander Calder was one of the most innovative and original American artists of the twentieth century. Calder arrived in Paris in 1926 and devoted himself to a innovative project comprised of animals made out of wire, scraps of cloth, wood, cork, labels, bits of scrap metal and pieces of rubber that he called the Circus. During his performances, Calder invented ways to simulate the flight of birds: “These are little bits of white paper, with a hole and slight weight on each one, which flutter down For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org several variously coiled thin steel wires which I jiggle so that they flutter down like doves.” The Circus was the laboratory of Calder’s work; in it he experimented with new formulas and techniques. By 1930, Calder's Circus had developed into one of the real successes of the Montparnasse art world attracting the attention of such renowned artists as Fernand Leger and Joan Miro. Encouragement from the upper echelons of the Parisian art scene undoubtedly led him to try more serious experiments in wire sculptures. Calder eventually becoming interested in the movement of objects, some of which he motorized. In 1933, Calder completed Object with Red Discs, a sculpture he described as a two-meter rod with a heavy sphere, suspended from the apex of a wire, giving it a cantilever effect. It had five thin aluminum discs projected at right angels from five wires, held in position by a spherical counterweight. With this new creation, the idea of the mobile was born. In creating a work named Constellations in 1943, Calder explored the plastic possibilities of mobiles; he used small pieces of wood, which he shaped and sometimes painted. From this point on, Calder’s ambition changed focus. He sought more challenging designs. One of Calder’s objectives was to display objects in the air, giving the viewer the experience of finding new skies filled with moving and colored constellations. Calder accomplished this in Acoustic Ceiling (1954). Calder’s humor was evident in such works as Le Bougnat (1959) and The Pagoda (1963). Later, Calder cut fantastic animals from sheet metal, creating La Vache and Elephant (both 1970) and a mobile entitled Nervous Wreck (1976), which represents the red skeleton of a fish. Calder defined volume without mass and incorporated movement and time in art. His inventions, which redefined certain basic principles of sculpture, have established him as the most innovative sculptor of the twentieth century. 21. According to the passage, which of the following is an accurate statement about Object with Red Discs? A. It was the first mobile created by Calder. B. It was one of the many mobiles without motors created by Calder. C. It was one of the many motorized mobiles created by Calder. D. It was the first motorized mobile created by Calder. E. It was the first of the many mobiles without motors created by Calder. 22. According to the passage, all of the following are characteristic of Calder’s work EXCEPT A. Calder was known to infuse humor into some of his creation B. Calder suspended objects from each other C. Calder motorized some of his creations D. Calder used materials such as metal, cloth, wood, rubber, cork E. Calder suspended glass from thin metal wires to create a cantilever effect 23. The author’s attitude toward the mobiles of Alexander Calder is best described as For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. Hesitance B. Detachment C. Amusement D. Admiration E. Indifference 24. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statement was true of the Parisian art scene? A. The work of Fernand Leger and Joan Miro was influenced by that of Alexander Calder. B. The work of Alexander Calder was influenced by that of Fernand Leger and Joan Miro. C. Fernand Leger and Joan Miro had earned success in the art world before Alexander Calder. D. Alexander Calder had earned success in the art world before Fernand Leger and Joan Miro. E. Calder’s Circus earned more accolades from the upper echelons of the Parisian art scene than any other work in its time. 25. The cost of manufacturing sports shoes in Macao is 25% less than the cost of manufacturing them in the Philippines. Even after transportation fees and tariff charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import sport shoes from Macao to the Philippines than to manufacture sports shoes in the Philippines. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions? A. Labor costs in Macao are 25% below those in the Philippines. B. Importing sports shoes from Macao to the Philippines will eliminate 25% of the manufacturing jobs in the Philippines. C. The tariff on sports shoes imported from Macao to the Philippines is less than 25% of the cost of manufacturing sports shoes in the Philippines. D. The fee for transporting a pair of sports shoes from Macao to the Philippines is more than 25% of cost of manufacturing the shoes in Macao. E. It takes 25% less time to manufacture a pair of sports shoes in Macao than it does in the Philippines. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 26. Lewis and Clark were not the first white men to cross the continent from the Atlantic to the Pacific north of Mexico, and they did not visit places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. A. and did not visit places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. B. and they did not visit places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. C. and they had not visit places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. D. nor had they visited places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. E. nor did they visit places not already seen and mapped by generations of native people. 27. Electric boats have eliminated the noise pollution that conventional powerboats made and reduce the loathsome discharges of oil that foul American rivers and lakes, threatening fish and bird life. A. reduce the loathsome discharges of oil that foul American rivers and lakes, threatening fish and bird life. B. reduce the loathsome discharges of oil that foul American rivers and lakes, threaten fish and bird life. C. reduce the loathsome discharges of oil that foul American rivers and lakes, to threaten fish and bird life. D. reduced the loathsome discharges of oil that fouled American rivers and lakes, to threaten fish and bird life. E. reduced the loathsome discharges of oil that fouled American rivers and lakes, threatening fish and bird life. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 28. Opponents of laws that require motorcycle riders to wear helmets argue that in a free society people have the right to take risks as long as the people do not harm others as a result of taking the risks. As a result, they conclude that it should be each person’s decision whether or not to wear a helmet. Which of the following, if true, seriously weakens the conclusion drawn above? A. Many new motorcycles are built with safety features that made them less likely to be involved in an accident. B. Motorcycle insurance rates for all motorcycle owners are higher because of the need to pay for the increased injuries or deaths of people not wearing helmets. C. Participants in certain extreme sports are required to wear helmets. D. The rate of automobile fatalities in states that do not have mandatory helmet laws is greater than the rate of fatalities in states that do have such laws. E. In motorcycle accidents, a greater number of passengers who do not wear helmets are injured than are passengers who do wear helmets. The following passage refers to questions 29-31. Intuitively, intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills seem very different because perceptual-motor skills appear more primitive. Ontogenetically, perceptual-motor skills develop before intellectual skills, or at least before most intellectual skills are manifested. Phylogenetically, creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are more obviously capable of intellectual skills than are creatures "lower down ". Perceptual-motor skills also seem more closely tied to specific forms of expression. Being a chess player does not mean one can only play with pieces of a certain size, that one can only move pieces with one's right hand, and so on. By contrast, being a violinist means one can play an instrument whose size occupies a fairly narrow range and that one must play with a rather rigid assignment of functions to effectors (bowing with the right hand, and fingering with the left). The seeming narrowness of this perceptual-motor skill expression, contrasted with the seeming openness of intellectual skill expression, seems to follow from intellectual skills having symbolic outcomes and perceptual-motor skills having non-symbolic outcomes. Symbolic outcomes need not be realized in specific ways and can rely on abstract rules. Non-symbolic outcomes, by contrast, need more specific forms of realization and seem to depend on restricted associations between stimuli and responses . For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Another difference between intellectual and perceptual-motor skills is that the two kinds of skill seem to be represented in different parts of the brain. For example, structures homologous to the optic tectum, a nucleus located on the dorsal surface of the midbrain, have a common function in all vertebrates--coordinating visual, auditory, and somatosensory information relevant to the control of orienting movements of the eyes, ears, and head. Similarities in structure and function between these and other brain areas associated with perceptual-motor behavior suggest that mechanisms for control of perceptual-motor skills are both highly specialized and conserved across species. In contrast, what distinguishes the human brain from the brains of other species --even closely related ones --is the differential growth of brain regions most strongly associated with intellectual skills, such as the association areas of the cerebral cortex. The contention that these areas serve intellectual functions is supported by a large body of clinical and experimental literature. Together, these diverse sources of information suggest that perceptual-motor and intellectual skills depend on distinct brain circuits . 29. The passage is chiefly concerned with A. Presenting a new theory and describing a new method to test that theory B. Suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method C. Demonstrating that perceptual-motor skills are closely tied to specific forms of expression D. Arguing that two seemingly dissimilar skills are more alike than was previously assumed E. Presenting evidence on two dissimilar skills that resolves a contradiction 30. The author mentions the game of chess in paragraph two primarily in order to A. Present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression. B. Present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression. C. Present an example of a skill that is both an intellectual skill and a perceptual-motor skill, the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression. D. Present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression. E. Present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression. 31. It can be inferred from the passage that the optic tectum A. Functions similarly in animal and in plants B. Functions similarly in vertebrates and invertebrates For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org C. Is located in a comparable area of the brains of humans and giraffes D. Coordinates somatosensory moment in snakes E. Has a much more sophisticated structure than the cerebral cortex 32. Being literal-minded about the afterlife, both royalty and commoners arranged to fill their tombs with household objects, each object a necessity for daily life, ready for use. A. each object a necessity for daily life, ready for use. B. all the objects a necessity for daily life, ready for use. C. all the objects a necessity for daily life, they are ready for use. D. every object a necessity for daily life, it is ready for use. E. each object a necessity for daily life, was ready for use. The following passage refers to questions 33-35. Considerable debate exists in the self-perception literature over the impact of positively biased self-perceptions on social and psychological functioning. Positively based self-perceptions are those in which an individual has a more positive opinion of himself than objective indicators warrant. One view suggests that positive perceptual biases are characteristic of normal human thought across a variety of domains and correlate positively with good mental and psychological health. Certain researchers and clinicians have even proposed that by boosting self-concepts, symptoms of depression and levels of aggression may be reduced. Investigators on the other side of the debate maintain that when most positive self-perceptions are compared to an objective criterion, they appear neither positively biased nor adaptive. In fact, Baumeister, Smart, and Boden suggest that positively biased self-concepts may have a ‘dark side’. They proposed that it is persons with very positive self-views who are prone to be aggressive. As a result, building up individuals' self-perceptions may serve only to increase levels of aggression rather than curb them. According to Baumeister et al., not all individuals with positive self-perceptions are going to be interpersonally aggressive. Rather, individuals who are extremely positive in their perceptions of themselves and their functioning are proposed to be the most likely to become angry and potentially violent. The mechanism that triggers aggressive behavior by these individuals has been suggested to be negative social feedback that challenges their positive self-views. Such threats to positive self-esteem give rise to anger and hostility. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org If negative social information is encountered that challenges established positive self-perceptions, Baumeister et al. propose that individuals must choose to either accept the feedback and lower their self-perceptions or reject the feedback to maintain their positive self-views. The chosen reaction then influences their subsequent affective states and behavioral expressions. By accepting the external appraisals and adjusting self-perceptions downward, dysphoric feelings and social withdrawal may result. Conversely, the rejection of the validity of the unfavorable feedback results in feelings of anger and resentment toward the source of the threat. Dodge and colleagues demonstrated that children who interpret social cues as threatening direct their anger and aggression at the peers who gave the negative evaluations. Anger stemming from the receipt of social criticism is a way to deny the legitimacy of the negative information. By directing hostile reactions toward the source of the negative feedback, the influx of disconfirming information may end. Unless individuals react against the self-esteem threat, they may be compelled to revise their self-concepts negatively, in line with the information provided. By discounting the negative social feedback, individuals can protect themselves from dysphoric feelings and maintain their positively biased self-perceptions, but they may be setting themselves up to become interpersonally aggressive. Although positively biased self-perceptions may place individuals at risk for negative social feedback and subsequent increases in aggressive behavior, not all positive self-concepts are suggested to be harmful. The relationship between positive self-perceptions and aggression may depend on the degree of perceptual distortion (i.e., moderate vs. extreme distortion). Baumeister (1989) and Baumeister et al. (1996) proposed that an optimal range of moderate bias might exist within which mental health is encouraged. Maladjustment in psychological and social functioning is suggested to occur when the degree of bias of self-perceptions shifts from moderate to extreme levels. Extremely negative and positive perceptual bias would be related to different but equally harmful difficulties. 33. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. Present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them B. Discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood C. Challenge the validity of a theory by presenting evidence that the opposite is true in some cases D. Summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems encountered in the first two E. Present evidence that resolves a contradiction 34. According to the passage, which of the following is mentioned as a factor in determining whether an individual with positively biased self-perception would actually be likely to perform an act of violence? A. The gap between what the individual thinks about himself and how good he really is For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org B. The gender of the individual C. The anger level of the individual’s peers D. The individual’s ability to ignore dysphoric feelings E. The validity of the unfavorable feedback 35. The passage discusses the likelihood of violence stemming from which of the following types of individuals? A. An individual with a moderately positive self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers B. An individual with a highly positive self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers C. An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives positive feedback from his peers D. An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers E. An individual with a dark side who receives negative feedback from his peers 36. A drug that is highly effective in treating certain types of cancerous growth can, at present, be obtained only from the cartilage of a particular sub-species of shark, a sub-species which is quite rare in the wild. One must kill 50 sharks to make one pound of the drug. If follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead to the extinction of this sub-species of shark. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? A. The drug made from the shark cartilage is dispensed to doctors from a central authority. B. The drug made from the shark cartilage is expensive to produce. C. Other organs of the shark can be utilized to produce different drugs. D. The sub-species of shark will reproduce in captivity under the proper conditions. E. This sub-species of shark generally lives in largely inaccessible waters. 37. Among the era’s triumphs were the Civil Rights Act of 1964, barring segregation in public places; the 24th Amendment to the Constitution, ratified in 1964, prohibiting the poll tax; and the 1965 Voting Rights Act, which ordered the state should abolish literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. should abolish literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. B. would abolish literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. C. to abolish literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. D. abolishing of literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. E. the abolishing of literacy tests as a requirement for registering to vote. 38. The Sumerians, who founded the first cities, not only invented writing, created poetry and the rule of law, and were also extraordinary craftsmen. A. and were also extraordinary craftsmen. B. but were also extraordinary craftsmen. C. but also were extraordinary craftsmen. D. but also fashioned extraordinary crafts. E. and also fashioned extraordinary crafts. 39. Harper’s Pencils manufactures and sells the same pencils as Johnson’s Supply. Employee wages account for forty percent of the cost of manufacturing pencils at both factories. Harper’s is seeking a competitive edge over Johnson’s supply. Therefore, to promote this end, Harper’s should lower employee wages. Which of the following, if true, seriously weakens the argument above? A. Because they make a small number of specialty artist’s pencils, pencil manufacturers cannot receive volume discounts on raw materials. B. Lowering wages would reduce the quality of employee work and this reduced quality would lead to lowered sales. C. Harper’s Pencils has taken away twenty percent of Johnson’s Supply business over the last year. D. Johnson’s Supply pays its employees, on average, ten percent more than does Harper’s Pencils. E. Many people who work for manufacturing plants live in areas in which the manufacturing plant they work for is the only industry. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 40. The technological conservatism of art supply manufacturers is a reflection of the kinds of demands they are trying to meet. The only customers who are seriously interested in purchasing new products are professional artists. Therefore, innovation in art supply technology is limited by what art critics and gallery owners accept as a proper medium of expression for artists. Which of the following is an assumption made in drawing the conclusion above? A. The market for cheap traditional art supplies cannot expand unless the market for new art products expands. B. New art products are likely to be improved more as a result of technological innovations developed in small workshops than as a result of technical innovations developed in major manufacturing concerns. C. Professional artists do not generate a strong demand for innovations that fall outside what is officially recognized as a standard medium for purposes of artistic creations. D. The technological conservatism of art supply manufacturers results primarily from their desire to manufacture a product that can be sold without being altered to suit different national markets. E. The critics and gallery owners who set standards for high-quality art do not keep themselves informed about innovations in art supplies. 41. Although Binofram has been proven to alleviate certain skin rashes associated with some medical conditions, many physicians no longer routinely prescribe this drug for this purpose. A rash can stimulate the activity of the body’s T-cells and also inhibit growth of some strains of virus. If the statements above are true, which of the following conclusion is most strongly supported by them? For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org A. Binofram, an effective rash medication, alleviates the itching and discomfort of many illnesses. B. Binofram can prolong a patient’s illness by eliminating certain skin rashes which can be helpful in fighting some diseases. C. Binofram inhibits the growth of the body’s T-cells, which are necessary for fighting some illnesses. D. The more T-cells a patient’s body produces, the less severe the patient’s illness will be. E. The focus of modern medicine is on inhibiting the growth of harmful viruses within the body Answers and explanations: 1. The best answer is C. Besides being wordy, the beginnings of Choices A and B cause inconsistencies in verb tense: the development of the after-school programs cannot logically be described by both the present perfect and the past. The phrases none the less… than in choice D and no less… as in E are unidiomatic. 2. The best answer is C. In choices A and B, the verb suggest does not agree with its singular subject, rise. Choices D and E use the adverb usually where the adjective form is required. 3. The best answer is B. The information in choice B says that young Burmese ferret badgers progress slowly towards mastery of a burrow-digging style. This suggests that the skill is one they must learn, rather than one whose transmission is wholly genetic. Choice B also suggests a means of cultural transmission, namely, observation of older badger’s techniques. 4. The best answer is E. The argument concludes that pottery is not an art because potters must consider the practical utility of their product. If it is true that an object is not a work of art if its maker pays attention to the object’s practical utility, the conclusion is supported. 5. The best answer is E. Choices A, B and D use tenses that can only be used for the living. Hughes, the subject of the sentence, is deceased, as is evidenced by the sentence. Choice C sets up a condition would have published... but the condition is then not specified. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 6. The best answer is B. The sentence compares one thing, forceful winds affecting the rowing venue, to all other possible disasters. Therefore, the superlative form, most, is required. The use of maybe is unidiomatic. 7. The best answer is B. The preposition for governs both Henry Urick and eleven other… so along with is sufficient. In choice A, C and E, the word including is used incorrectly because the other people were arrested in addition to Henry Urick, and not included in his arrest. 8. The best answer is B. The passage introduces the concept of anonymous juries and goes on to discuss their constitutionality. 9. The best answer is D. In paragraph three it states that many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection. The passage gives no information on what defendant think about anonymous juries. 10. The best answer is B. Critics of anonymous juries base their arguments on the fact that these juries are unconstitutional. In the fourth paragraph, the author explains that while anonymous juries may not be ideal, they are not unconstitutional. 11. The best answer is E. If iguanas that are exposed to light 24 hours a day display a similar pattern of activity as those exposed to natural light and dark cycles this constitutes evidence again the hypothesis that it is the alterations in light that control biological cycles. 12. The best answer is C. According to choice C, using a contaminated lipstick does not increase the incidence of infection, so the recommendation to replace a lipstick before it becomes contaminated is greatly undermined. 13. The best answer is A. The argument concludes that declining wholesale prices for other gemstones will produce declining retail prices for jewelry made with gemstones other than diamonds. Choice A weakens the argument by pointing to higher processing costs for other gemstone, which could offset lower wholesale prices. 14. The best answer is A. Choices C, D and E present dangling modifiers. Choice B incorrectly places the gerund being after the model, should. 15. The best answer is E. The phrases equivalent to, the equivalent of, and equal to have too broad a range of meanings to be used precisely here. As many as is preferable. Choice D compares the hundreds of people incorrectly to enrollment. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 16. The best answer is B. In English it is idiomatic usage to credit someone with having done something. 17. The best answer is A. The singular pronoun its agrees in number with the singular noun referent AD & M; the past perfect verb form had been is used appropriately to refer to an action completed prior to the action of the simple past tense produced. 18. The best answer is C. The conclusion is that the programs benefit both companies and employees. For companies, reducing employees’ risk of flu or cold is likely to reduce absenteeism, and increasing employee energy is likely to increase worker productivity. For employees, the benefits are self-evident. 19. The best answer is A. Dr. Summer’s argument is essentially that, even if the facts are as the interviewer presents them, they are not in and of themselves a cause for alarm. Even circumstances reassuringly normal and unremarkable imply the sort of fact the interviewer cites. Thus, that fact does not indicate that the rate of heart disease has increased above normal. 20. The best answer is B. Dr. Summer’s argument assumes that people are generally similar in how likely they are to have among their acquaintances people who have heart disease. Since heavy concentrations of people with heart disease in geographically isolated segments of the population would produce great differences in that respect, Dr. Summer’s argument assumes few, if any, such concentrations. 21. The best answer is A. According to the passage, Object with Red Discs is Calder’s first mobile. It states that Calder became interested in the movement of objects, some of which he motorized, but there is no information given on whether this particular sculpture was motorized. 22. The best answer is E. The passage makes no mention of glass as one of the materials Calder used. 23. The best answer is D. The author presents only a positive criticism of Calder, stating that he is the most innovative sculptor of the twentieth century. 24. The best answer is C. According to the passage, Calder’s early work attracting the attention of such renowned artists as Fernand Leger and Joan Miro. It can be inferred that Leger and Miro were already famous when Calder was just starting out. 25. The best answer is C. If the tariff on importing sport shoes from Macao to the Philippines were as high as 25% or more of the cost of producing sports shoes in the For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org Philippines, then, contrary to what the passage says, the cost of importing sports shoes would be equal to or more than the cost of producing sports shoes in the Philippines. Thus, the tariff cannot be that high. 26. The best answer is E. Being the second thing that Lewis and Clark did not do, the word nor is required. The first negative phrase is in the past simple, so the second one must be in past simple form as well. 27. The best answer is E. The form of the word reduce is governed by first verb phrase because it continues in a parallel construction: Have eliminated.. and reduced. 28. The best answer is B. The principle that people are entitled to risk injury provided they do not thereby harm others fails to justify the individual’s right to decide not to wear a helmet if it can be shown that it does harm others by raising insurance rates. 29. The best answer is D. The passage presents evidence to back the claims that intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills are more similar than was once believed. 30. The best answer is A. Chess is an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression. In other words, once one has learned to play the game, one can vary the way one plays, by using one’s left hand instead of one’s right, for instance. 31. The best answer is C. According to the passage, the optic tectum occupies the same area of the brain in all vertebrates (animals with a spinal column). 32. The best answer is A. In choice A, the words object and necessity, both singular, agree. 33. The best answer is C. The passage challenges the validity of the theory that positively biased self-perception is closely correlated with normal human thought and good mental health by showing how a very high self-perception may lead to violent behavior. 34. The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself. 35. The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence. For more material and information, please visit Tai Lieu Du Hoc at www.tailieuduhoc.org 36. The best answer is D. If the shark can be successfully bred in captivity, it is possible to continue production of the drug without threatening the shark with extinction. 37. The best answer is C. The infinitive to abolish follows the verb ordered, producing the grammatical and idiomatic sequence X ordered Y to do Z. 38. The best answer is D. Choice d correctly uses the not only… but also… construction, with parallel phrases. 39. The best answer is B. The effect of lowering wages is to reduce quality sufficiently to reduce sales. This is a good reason to doubt that wage cuts would give Johnson any competitive edge. 40. The best answer is C. If professional artists, the only customers interested in innovation, created a strong demand for innovations for purposes other than what is officially recognized as a standard medium for purposes of artistic creations, then the conclusion would not follow. Therefore, choice C, which states that professional artists generate no such demand – is assumed and is the best answer. 41. The best answer is B. By stimulating T-cells and inhibiting the growth of certain viruses, rashes can aid the body in fighting infection. However, Binofram can eliminate the rash. Thus, as choice B states, Binofram can prolong a patient’s illness.