CSIR paper

CSIR papers GENERAL SCIENCE PAPER I (PART ‘A’) 1. If the speed of light (3×108 m/s) and the mean radius of the earth (6×103 km) are taken to be the units of speed and length respectively, then the value of the new unit of acceleration expressed in m/s2 will be 1. 1.5 × 1010 2. 50 3. 0.02 4. 1.2 × 105 2. The minimum number of multiplications required to evaluate the expression a + bx + cx2 + dx3 + ex4 is 1. 4 2. 5 3. 3 4. 7 3. Consider the function f (x)= x (1− x) for 0≤ x≤1 The function 1. attains minima at x = ½ and ¾. 2. is discontinuous in the given interval 3. is negative at a few points in the given interval. 4. has a maximum at x = ½. 4. Which of the following distributions has the smallest variance? 5. One way to determine whether a number (n) is prime or not is to divide it by numbers less than itself. The number of divisions required is 1. n/2 2. n − 1 3. 2 n 4. less than n 6. The angular velocity vector of the Earth’s rotation points 1. from east to west 2. from west to east 3. from north to south 4. from south to north 7. The top of a mountain is at an elevation of 45° from one bank of a river and at an elevation of 60° from the other bank. If the river has a width of 1 km, what is the height [in km] of the mountain? 1. 12 2. 3 3. 3 1+ 3 4. 3 3 −1 8. On a cold day, a copper vessel feels colder to touch than a glass bowl. What is the reason for this? 1. Glass does not cool down as easily as copper does. 2. Glass is a poor conductor of heat compared to copper. 3. The specific heat of glass is higher than that of copper. 4. Glass radiates more heat than copper does. 9. If the distance between two bodies of masses m1 and m2 is doubled, the gravitational force between them 1. doubles. 2. halves. 3. becomes one-fourth. 4. remains the same. 10. A cricket ball and a football are dropped simultaneously from the top of Qutub Minar. Which of the following best describes their subsequent behaviour? 1. They touch the ground at the same instant. 2. They touch the ground with the same velocity. 3. The cricket ball reaches before the football. 4. The football reaches before the cricket ball. 11. A mass m (200 g) slides horizontally due to a downward force applied by a 500 g weight (as shown in figure). The velocity of the mass m (ignoring friction) 12. 1. increases as a function of time with constant acceleration. 2. remains constant. 3. changes with time with increasing acceleration. 4. changes with time with decreasing acceleration. 12. The O–H bonds in water molecule are polar. The molecule is symmetric and the H–O–H bond angle is approximately 107°. The dipole moment vector of the molecule is 1. zero 2. along the OH bond 3. randomly oriented 4. along the bisector of the H–O–H angle 13. You wish to observe a small organism closely, using a convex lens. If you wish to avoid distortion of the image, you should keep the object 1. at a distance greater than the focal length 2. less than the focal length 3. at twice the focal length 4. exactly at the focal length 14. A charged particle moving with a constant velocity enters a magnetic field perpendicular to its velocity. In which direction y an electric field should be applied to compensate the magnetic force? 1. Along the initial velocity 2. Perpendicular to the initial velocity and parallel to the magnetic field 3. Perpendicular to both, the initial velocity and the magnetic field 4. Along the magnetic field 15. Two pendula of lengths l1 and l2 (= 2l1) have the same period at two different locations. The accelerations due to gravity at these two locations, g1 and g2, are related by 1. g1 = g2 2. g1 = 2g2 3. g2 = 2g1 4. g2 = 4g1 16. Water rises naturally out of an artesian well because 1. the water has lots of dissolved gases 2. the water table is at the ground level 3. the water table is below the ground level 4. the water table is above the ground level 17. Although, we know from chemical evidence that life on Earth evolved as early as 3.5 billion years ago, the most ancient available fossils are only 0.54 billion years old. This is because 1. acidic ocean dissolved all life forms 2. early life forms were soft bodied 3. rocks older than 0.54 billion years do not exist 4. a large asteroid impact destroyed all earlier records 18. During α-decay of a radioactive atom, the mass number reduces by 4 units and the atomic number decreases by 2 units. How many α-particles will be generated during the decay of a 238 92U atom to a 206 82 Pb atom. 1. 8 2. 16 3. 10 4. 5 19. Depletion of ozone layer and formation of ozone hole in polar regions is a phenomenon occurring in the 1. troposphere. 2. mesosphere. 3. stratosphere. 4. thermosphere. 20. Sea levels are predicted to rise in the near future mainly due to 1. sinking of landmass 2. increased rainfall 3. gravitational pull of the moon 4. melting of glaciers. 21. The pH value of distilled water is always below 7. This is because 1. distillation reduces the ionic product of water. 2. during distillation inorganic salts are removed. 3. nitrogen from air gets dissolved in it. 4. CO2 from air dissolves in it. 22. Photosynthesis in water bodies is restricted to a certain depth. This is mainly because 1. temperature decreases with depth 2. light intensity decreases with depth 3. dissolved CO2 is available only to a certain depth 4. nutrients are available only to a certain depth 23. The velocity of P (pressure) and S (shear) seismic waves depends on the compressibility, shear modulus and density of the medium. The inner core of the Earth is inferred to be liquid using seismic wave travel time. This is because 1. the density of the inner core is the highest. 2. the inner core has a very high compressibility. 3. both P and S waves pass through the inner core. 4. the S wave does not pass through the inner core. 24. One of the following chemicals used as food preservative is 1. sodium benzoate 2. sodium alkylbenzene sulfonate 3. ethylene glycol 4. aspartic acid 25. Qualitative analysis of Al3+ in presence of Fe3+ and Cr3+ is based on 1. reducing nature of Fe3+ 2. oxidizing nature of Cr3+ 3. amphoteric nature of Fe3+ 4. amphoteric nature of Al3+ and Cr3+ 26. Hydrolysis of t-butyl chloride in presence of aqueous alkali produces t-butyl alcohol. The rate of hydrolysis depends on 1. concentration of t-butyl chloride 2. concentration of alkali 3. amount of water 4. concentration of both alkali and t-butyl chloride 27. Which one of the following would give natural rubber upon polymerisation? 1. CH3 – CH2 = CH2 H CH3 | | 2 n-propyl– C = C–CH =CH2 CH3 CH3 | | 3. H3C – C = C – CH = CH2 CH3 | 4. CH2 = C – CH = CH2 28. The ionization potential (IP) of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The estimated second IP of the helium atom (in eV) is 1. 6.8 2. 27.2 3. 54.4 4. 13.6 29. The following molecule has a non-zero dipole moment 1. CH4 2. CO2 3. NH3 4. BF3 30. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is 1. + 6 2. + 3 3. + 10 4. + 5 31. A B (salt) Na + H2 (alcohol) B MeI C (ether) C Conc. HI MeI A NaOH/I2 iodoform heat The alcohol (A), salt (B) and ether (C), are respectively 1. CH3OH, CH3ONa, CH3-O-CH3 2. CH3OH, C2H5ONa, CH3-O-C2H5 3. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5-O-C2H5 4. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, CH3–O-C2H5 32. In any ecosystem, the primary producers such as photosynthetic plants are the most abundant and predators such as tigers are the least abundant. The fundamental law responsible for this pattern is 1. first law of thermodynamics 2. second law of thermodynamics 3. Mendel's laws of genetics 4. law of conservation of mass 33. In the Siberian forests, carbon fixation is expected to be maximum in 1. January 2. July 3. October 4. April 34. Movement of water in a tree takes place in 1. roots only 2. in the central part of the stem 3. in the peripheral part of the stem 4. leaves only 35. Which of the following is not used as a fertilizer? 1. Ammonium nitrate 2. Ammonium phosphate 3. Urea 4. Sodium chloride 36. In DNA, Adenosine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. If Adenosine constitutes 18% and Guanine constitutes 24% of all nucleotides in a DNA preparation, it must be a 1. single stranded DNA 2. double stranded DNA 3. very short stretch of double stranded DNA 4. multi-chromosomal DNA 37. A bacterium which is 1 μ in diameter and divides every 20 minutes, forms a 1 mm diameter colony in 24 hours in a growth medium with limited nutrients. The number of cells in the colony is approximately 1. 1000 2 . 109 3. 2 × 72 4. 272 38. Burns caused by steam are more serious than burns caused by boiling water because 1. steam has large latent heat 2. steam has a very large specific heat compared to water 3. steam is hotter than boiling water 4. steam being a gas makes easy contact with skin 39. The largest decimal number that a four byte integer can represent is approximately 1. 105 2. 107 3. 109 4. 1011 40. A modern personal computer is capable of multiplying two numbers in a few 1. picoseconds 2. nanoseconds 3. microseconds 4. milliseconds INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES JODHPUR CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE MEMORY BASED PA P E RI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES (IFAS) B‐7 SARASWATI NAGAR, BASNI‐I, JODHPUR (RAJ) Contact: 0291‐2721056; 09460660533 e‐mail:ifasnet@gmail.com http://csirnetlifesciences.tripod.com INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7, SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) WE ALSO PROVIDE REGULAR COACHING AND CORRESPONDENCE STUDY MATERIAL FOR CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES FOR MORE INFORMATION CONTACT INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES (IFAS) B‐7 SARASWATI NAGAR, BASNI‐I, JODHPUR (RAJ) Contact: 0291‐2721056; 09460660533 e‐mail:ifasnet@gmail.com OR VISIT http://csirnetlifesciences.tripod.com CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 1 1. Electrical charge is stored in 1. Battery 2. Capacitor 3. Voltmeter 4. Wire 2. Which of them will have minimum resistance to flow of electric current? 1. Glass 2. Saline aquifer 3. Granite 4. Lime stone 3. What would be effect on shape of cupper metallic tube carrying electric current due to nerate magnetic field 1. No effect 2. It will swell from middle 3. It will shrink from middle 4. Will be eclipse shape 4. What would be effect on time period of pendulum one laced on equator and other on pole 1. No effect 2. Time period would be greater at poles 3. Time period would be greater at equator 4. Pendulum will stop at poles 5. The main reason for release of energy from sun is 1. Fusion of hydrogen 2. Fission of hydrogen 3. Fusion of Helium 4. Fission of Helium 6. At ground state of hydrogen atom its Bohr radius is 5.3 x 10‐11m and mean velocity is 2.1 x 106 m/s. What would be value of fundamental time unit? 1. 2.52 X 10 ‐17 sec 2. 2.52 X 10 ‐5 sec 3. 1.2 X 10 ‐17 sec 4. 1.52 X 10 ‐17 sec 7. Angle between two vectors 2i+3j and 3i‐2j will be 1. 300 2. 450 3. 600 4. 900 8. Relative mean kinetic energy for Helium atom (atomic weight 4) and Argon (atomic weight 40) would be 1. 1:10 2. 1:4 3. 1:100 4. 1:16 9. During combustion of carbon in presence of oxygen CO2 is formed. What will be effect on release of CO2 if availability of oxygen is doubled? 1. No change 2. Will double 3. Will half 4. Will increase four times 10. If iodine stored in a closed chamber is slowly evacuated to sublime. What would be effect on sublimation rate and mean free path? 1. Both will increase 2. Both will decrease 3. Sublimation rate will increase while free path decrease 4. Sublimation rate decrease and free path increase 11. Assuming equal density through out different layers of the earth, if radius ‘r’ of selected part is gradually increased from centre of earth (where r O2>CO2>H2. The gases in exhaled air would be in order 1. N2>CO2>O2>H2 2. N2>O2>CO2>H2 3. N2>CO2>H2>O2 4. N2>H2>CO2>CO2 59. Distance between the two linked genes A and B is 20 cM. On test cross of with recessive parent how many offspring will have genotype 1. 10 2. 20 3. 40 4. 80 60. In Neurospora crassa tetrad analysis showed following result + : m :: 6 : 2. The phenomenon involved for above result would be 1. Branch migration 2. Strand exchange 3. Holiday junction 4. DNA replication CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 5 61. A poky Neurospora was crossed with normal Neurospora and following results were obtained Poky X Normal􀃆 all poky Normal X Poky 􀃆 all Normal The mode of inheritance is 1. Maternal Inheritance 2. Maternal effect 3. X‐Linked 4. Sex influenced 62. The Mendelian law of Independent assortment is due to arrangement of chromosome during 1. Anaphase‐I 2. Anaphase‐II 3. S‐Phase 4. Cytokinesis 63. Among the following most variable stage of cell cycle is 1. G1 2. S 3. G2 4. M 64. It has been observed that during prolong animal cell culture and differentiation cell tends to stop dividing. They are said to be in 1. Apoptosis 2. Quiescent 3. Senescence 4. G1 65. Type of mutation which is most suitable for study of regulation of cell like DNA replication is 1. Gain of function 2. Loss of function 3. Suppressor mutation 4. Conditional mutation 66. The glycocalyx around cell membrane can be determined by 1. Methylene blue 2. Iodine 3. Saffranin 4. Lectins 67. Small amount of lethal mutation always tend to remain in population is due to 1. Mutation‐Selection balance 2. Frequency dependent selection 3. Positive selection 4. Negative selection 68. During evolution increased ornamentation in male is a result of 1. Directional selection 2. Co‐evolution 3. Sexual selection 4. Natural selection 69. The hormone responsible for regulating spermatogenesis in human is 1. Testosterone 2. FSH 3. LH 4. Estrogen 70. Exponential growth in bacteria would be expected during 1. lag phase 2. log phase 3. Stationary phase 4. Deceleration phase 71. Thylokoid membrane has lateral asymmetrical positioning of photosytem in chloroplast. Which statement is correct? 1. PS‐I in non appressed portion and PS‐II in appressed portion 2. PS‐II in non appressed portion and PS‐I in appressed portion 3. Both PS‐I and PS‐II in appressed portion 4. Both PS‐I and PS‐II in non appressed portion of thylakoid 72. Which organelle require intact membrane system for ATP synthesis 1. Chloroplast 2. Mitochondria 3. Chloroplast & Mitochondria 4. ER 73. The movement of chloroplast is mediated by 1. Dynein 2. Kinesin 3. Actin 4. Myosin 74. The flagellin protein is associated with 1. Bacteria 2. Protist 3. Virus 4. Eukaryotic cell 75. Starch filled plastids are responsible for geotropism in columella cell beneath the root cap. They are termed as 1. Amyloplast 2. Elioplast 3. Chloroplast 4. Proplastid 76. ABC transporter in plants which are responsible for detoxification of Xenobiotics and prevent oxidative damage are located at 1. Tonoplast 2. Peroxisome 3. ER 4. Plasma membrane 77. Which technique is most suitable to study transcription factor and its binding site 1. DNAse I foot printing 2. Western blotting 3. Northern blotting 4. Micorarray 78. Which of them is not utilized for comparison of operational taxonomic unit (OTU) in numerical taxonomy 1. Unweighted pair group method 2. Percentage similarity 3. Jaccard Coefficient 4. Genetic similarity CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 6 79. Which statement is correct regarding concogenes 1. They are viral genes 2. They mutated form of genes controlling cell division 3. They are mutated viral genes 4. They suppresses tumors 80. A sample is in normal distribution ranging from (μ‐1σ) to (μ+2σ). The data in range would be 1. 17 2. 50 3. 67 4. 98 81. Among the following which graph represent correct relationship between intrinsic rate of growth ‘r’ and generation time ‘t’ (Answer 2) 82. Among the following which is not a result of acid rain 1. Low amount of phosphate availability 2. Low amount of aluminum availability 3. Low availability of nutrients to plant 4. Increased acidity of soil 83. Organ Identity genes are responsible for correct positioning of floral organs on floral meristem. Mutation in them will lead to 1. Loss of organs from certain whorls 2. More number of organs in certain whorls 3. Appearance of organs at incorrect positions 4. No flower 84. In hydra if any part is lost remaining portion repattern itself and give rise to complete organism. Such a pattern of development is termed as 1. Epimorphosis 2. Morphallaxis 3. Regeneration 4. Healing 85. Generally organism tends to remain in realized niche. Under what condition realized niche can be greater than fundamental niche 1. Abundance of resources 2. Heterogeneity of resources 3. One species helping other in utilization of resources 4. Moving of organism from source to new sink area 86. According to survival of fittest concept of natural selection one species out compete other species. Under such condition no two species can co‐exist in same niche but more than one species can live in same niche under condition 1. Abundant resources 2. High competition 3. Marginal overlapping 4. Utilization of different resources 87. The inbreeding coefficient of offspring on marriage between brother and sister sibling will be 1. 0.5 2. 0.05 3. 0.25 4. 0.75 88. Which would be suitable for constructing the genomic library of 70 Kb of DNA 1. YAC 2. BAC 3. P1 based vector 4. Cosmid 89. If we want to obtain glycosylated protein from microbe. Suitable choice will be 1. Bacteria 2. Yeast 3. Mycoplasma 4. Animal cell 90. Glycosylation of protein occurs in 1. ER 2. Golgi 3. Mitochondria 4. Nucleus 91. Among the following which antibiotic will inhibit protein synthesis in chloroplast? 1. Cyclohexamide 2. Chloromphenicol 3. Rifamcin 4. Ricin 92. World wide maximum cultivated transgenic crop is 1. Insect resistance cotton 2. Herbicide resistance soybeans 3. Growing plant for desired molecules 4. Edible vaccines 93. Elevated level of RBC and low affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is an adaptation for 1. High altitudes 2. Poles 3. Low altitudes 4. Marine CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 7 94. Perennial habit among trees would be more preferred under conditions 1. Low survival during sapling stage and high during adult 2. High survival during sapling stage and high during adult 3. Low survival during sapling stage and low during adult 4. High survival during sapling stage and high during adult 95. Most of trees of India in tropical forest belongs to family 1. Arecacea 2. Fabaceae 3. Dipterocarpaceae 4. Bromeliacae 96. Scientific names of bacteria, fungi, plants and animals are given by 1. International Union of Biological Nomenclature 2. There is different organization for naming plants and fungus 3. There are three different organization for naming bacteria, plant and animals 4. Names of plants and animals are given by same organization 97. Among the following imino acid is 1. Proline 2. Arginine 3. Typtophan 4. Lysine 98. pI for hypothetical protein consisting of only apolar amino acids will be 1. Independent on charge over N and C terminus 2. Depend on number of amino acids 3. Depend on mass of amino acids 4. Independent of type of amino acids 99. What would be effect on photosynthesis in C3 and C4 plants on elevating the concentration of CO2 under light saturated condition? 1. No effect on both type plants 2. C3 plant will saturate fast and C4 plant remain unaffected 3. C4 plants saturate fast and C3 plants remain unaffected 4. Both type plants will saturate fast 100. Common metabolites in nucleotide biosynthesis from glucose by pentose phosphate pathway is 1. PRPP (Phospho ribosyl pyrophosphate) 2. Glyceraldehyde‐3‐Phosphate 3. Di Hydroxy Acetone Phosphate 4. Fructose –6‐P 101. Which statement is not correct for nerve impulse transmission? 1. Minimum threshold intensity is required 2. Depends upon diameter of neuron 3. Action potential is proportional to signal intensity 4. Nerve cells show all or none effect 102. A gene consists of two introns and a 5’ UTR region, the probable number of exon will be. 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 103. Which is correct for termination of transcription in eukaryotes? 1. Terminates prior to polyadenylation 2. Terminates during polyadenylation 3. Terminates after poly adenylation 4. Forms hair pin loop 104. Heritability due to genetic variance for a trait of importance is 0.2. Which would be most appropriate approach to select trait in next generation in a short time? 1. Pedigree selection 2. Mass selection 3. Family selection 4. Selection by progeny testing 105. Which statement is correct regarding functioning of topo‐isomerase 1. Separate double stranded DNA 2. Act as primer 3. Renaturate the SS DNA 4. Attach to super coiled DNA and relax it 106. A protein specially abundant in desiccated seeds and also help in osmotic adjustment 1. LEA 2. Hsp 3. PR Protein 4. α‐amylase 107. Initiation of hematopoesis occurs at 1. Liver 2. Bone marrow 3. Kidney 4. Spleen 108. The essential mineral required for cell adhesion protein cadherin is 1. calcium 2. magnesium 3. Iron 4. Sodium CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 8 109. In an early embryonic transplantation experiment prospective skin cells were transferred near future muscle cell but then also it differentiates into skin cell. The cell would be termed 1. Determined 2. Committed 3. Totipotent 4. Differentiated 110. Rolling of sheet of cell over other cells during gastrulation is termed as 1. Epiboly 2. Ingression 3. Involulation 4. Delamination 111. During germination of seeds, after imbibitions of water first step would be 1. Mobilization of reserve food 2. Transcription of specific genes 3. Cell division 4. Embryo differentiation 112. In tissue culture experiment to initiated shoots from undifferentiated mass of cell the medium must contain 1. low auxin and high cytokinin 2. High auxin and high cytokinin 3. High auxin and low cytokinin 4. low auxin and low cytokinin 113. In aroid plant the temperatue of inflorescence rise around 8‐100C as compare to plant during maturation. It is due to activity of 1. Dehydrogenase 2. Cytochrome oxidase 3. Alternate oxidase 4. Peroxidase 114. Which of the metabolite in nitrate assimilation is not located in chloroplast? 1. Glutamine 2. Nitrite 3. Uric Acid 4. Xanthin 115. If bird is kept is a closed cage such that all external clues are blocked then what would be effect on its biological clock 1. No effect 2. It will lag behind to small level 3. It will be random 4. It will stop functioning 116. Serum contains 1. Non‐fibrinogen proteins, minerals and glucose 2. Cells corpuscles, mineral and glucose 3. Cell corpuscles, minerals and non‐fibrinogen proteins 4. Minerals and glucose 117. Main function of sweating is 1. Thermoregulation of body 2. Excrete salt 3. Maintenance of blood volume 4. Osmoregulation of body 118. Glucose is never seen in urine because it is mainly absorbed by 1. Proximal tubule 2. Collecting duct 3. Ascending loop of Henle 4. Glucose never enter into Bowman’s capsule 119. Among the following which would be most suitable marker for selection of animals with agronomic traits 1. RFLP 2. RAPD 3. EST 4. Minisattelite 120. Suppose a chromosomal aberration in a chromosome leads to . The probable reason is 1. Duplication and followed by EF inversion 2. Duplication followed by pericentric inversion 3. Only duplication 4. Only Inversion 121. The primary criteria for classifying insects is 1. Legs 2. Thorax 3. Wing 4. Appendages 122. In Northern hemisphere there is slow turnover of nutrient in terrestrial ecosystem as compare to southern hemisphere. The probable reason is 1. Plants are not good in uptake of nutrients in northern hemisphere 2. Temperature is low which is not suitable for nutrient recycling 3. High rainfall in southern hemisphere 4. Soil is nutrient deficient in northern hemisphere 123. Which antibody is known to be responsible for allergic reaction 1. IgG 2. IgA 3. IgM 4. IgE 124. In which technique O‐Phenyl Diamine is used as chromogenic substrate 1. RIA 2. ELISA 3. Southern blotting 4. Western blotting CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPERI INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, B7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR (RAJ) 9 125. Animal biologist generally uses Line‐transect method for estimating density. It is based on assumption that 1. Organism will not move from marked transect 2. All organisms are in straight line 3. That animals on the line are seen 4. Organism lack any competition 126. Anticodon sequence lies in 1. DNA 2. t‐RNA 3. r‐RNA 4. r‐RNA 127. φ and ψ values for right handed α helix are expected to be 1. φ Negative ψ negative 2. φ Negative ψ positive 3. φ Positive ψ negative 4. φ Positive ψ positive 128. Which is correct sequence of evolution of human culture and civilization? 1. Cave painting> burial>agriculture >pottery 2. Cave painting>agriculture>burial>Pottery 3. Cave painting > burial>Pottery>Agriculture 4. Agriculture>burial> Pottery>Cave painting 129. Which molecule has property of self replication? 1. Protein 2. Carbohydrate 3. Lipids 4. Nucleic Acid 130. The model organism to study cell lineage is 1. Xenopus 2. Yeast 3. Caenorhabditis elegans 4. Drosophila 131. Which of the following organism excrete uric acid? 1. Human 2. Fish 3. Frog 4. Bird 132. For constructing recombinant plasmid, plasmid and DNA to be inserted are digested with same restriction enzyme and kept in same reaction solution. To prevent self sealing of plasmid, which of the following enzyme is utilized? 1. Alkaline phosphatase 2. Polynucleotide kinase 3. Terminal transferase 4. Ligase 133. Immunotoxins are 1. Bacterial toxins 2. Antibody for specific antigen tagged with toxin 3. Low immunogenic toxin 4. Anti‐toxin 134. A aminopurine is attached to ribose sugar by N9 –C’ glycosidic bond would be termed as 1. Nucleotide 2. Deoxyadenosine 3. Adenosine 4. Adenosine monophosphate 135. 1 curie is equal to 1. 3.7 x 109 Becquerel 2. 37 x 109 Becquerel 3. 3.7 x 106 Becquerel 4. 37 x 106 Becquerel 136. Which of the following is negative regulator of trp operon 1. Lactose 2. Allolactose 3. C‐AMP 4. Tryptophan 137. If there are only 20 individuals in a population then as per IUCN it would be kept under category 1. Extinct 2. Rare 3. Endangered 4. Critically endangered 138. Maximum absorption of UV light at wavelength 280 nm by a protein is due to 1. Aromatic amino acids 2. Aromatic amino acids and peptide bond 3. Aliphatic amino acids 4. Aromatic and aliphatic amino acids 139. What percentage of photo active radiation are actually utilized for photosynthesis by plants 1. Lesser then 1 percent 2. 1‐3 percent 3. 10‐20 percent 4. >20 percent 140. In knockout mice experiment germline transmission of gene A, null allele from a male chimera shows retarded growth of all mutant heterozygotes. On inbreeding animals produced the expected ratio of heterozygote pups but only 50 percent of heterozygote are with retarded growth of phenotype. These results are consistent with the following 1. Genomic imprinting 2. Sex linked inheritance 3. Cytoplasmic inheritance 4. Dominant effect NOTE: Institute is not responsible for any incorrect question or answer or a part of it. Paper is being prepared by IFAS with help of students of IFAS on their memory basis. For any doubt e or suggestions mail at: ifasnet@gmail.com CSIR QUESTION PAPER SET 1 1. The correct equation to show change in population size is: (a) Nt= No+ B+ 1-D-E No= Initial Population size (b) Nt=No+B+I+D-E Nt = Increase to size (c) N,=No-B-I+D+E B = Natality rate (d) Nt = No+ B + 1-D + E I = rate of Immigration D = Mortality rate E = Emigration rate 2. Boat channel is found sometimes between land and reef then the type of reef is: (a) Fringing reef (b) Barrier reef (c) Atoll reef (d) Platform 3. B-chromosomes are responsible for: (a) Loss of vigour and fertility (b) Reduction of vigour and fertility (c) pairing in the late ~ zygotene (d) Failure of pairing of pairing but crossing 20. over. 4. "An endonuclease produces single stranded at idnetical points in the two homologous DNA molecules in the strands having same polarity to form x-like str. One end of this cross rotates by 180º".The statment indicates: (a) Hybrid DNA model (b) Chiasmatype theory (c) Copy choice theory (d) Classical theory 5. RNA as genetic material was proved by Frankal-Conrat & Singer (1957) isolated viral particle is: (a) RSV from human 23. (b) HIV from human (c) TMV from Plantago lanceolata (d) RSV from mice 6. C-value paradox is: (a) a closer look at the c-value within and between the different phyla. (b) a closer look at the c-value within between the different phyla. (c) a closer look at the c-value with in between the different organisms of same genus. (d) All of above 7. Mismatch repair in DNA takes place in bases which undergo (a) deamination to uracil/5-methyl cytosine to thymine (b) splicing due to exonuclease activity of certain enzymes (c) exchange due to crossing over mismatch (d) long patch repair is not correct 8. In gene regulation of which of the following operon. It is believed that only attenuation play role. (a) His operon (b) Trp operon (c) Thr operon (d) All of above 9. Which of the following transcriptional factor elements are most essential for DNA binding & transcription initiation (a) Homeodomains (b) Zinc finger (c) Leucin Zipper (d) Acid blops 10. Interferon synthesis requires: (a) Phosphorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor I (b) Phosphorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor II (c) Dephosphorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor II (d) Dephsophorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor III 11. Which of the following histones under go most easily activation by HAT (a) H2A & H2B (b) H2A & H3 (c) H3 & H4 (d) All of above 12. Paramutagenic genes are located inside the: (a) cytosol (b) karyolymp (c) chromosome (d) mitochondria 13. In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated: (a) in a pH gradient (b) in a salt gradient (c) ion a density gradient (d) in a temperature gradient 14. Edman degradation sequences peptides...... (a) rising a cDNA sequence (b) according to their masses (c) from the C-terminus to the N-terminus (d) from the N-terminus to the C-terminus 15. Denaturation of double stranded DNA involves: (a) breakage into short double-stranded fragments (b) separation into single strands (c) hydrolysis of the DNA backbone (d) cleavage of the bases from the sugar phosphate backbone 17. Which one of the following statements along PCR in false? (a) the PCR cycle involves denaturation of the template, annealing of the primers and polymerization of nucleotides (b) PCR uses thermostable DNA polymerase. (c) Ideally, PCR primers should be of similar length and G+C content. (d) PCR optimization usually includes varying the magnesium concentration and the polymerization temperature. (e) if PCR was 100% efficient, one target molecules would amplify to 2" after n cycles. 18. Mechanism of endocytosis can be studied through: (a) Phase contrast microscopy (b) Polarising microscopy 1(c) Electron microscopy (d) interference microscopy 19. Which of the following molecule separates at the end during differential centrifugation? (a) t-RNA (b) r-RNA (c) DNA (d) mRNA 20. The strength of a hydrogen bond is the order of: (a) 1 kCaVmol (b) 5 kCaVmol (c) 25 kCal/mole (d) 100kCaV/mol 21. Given that there are 20 amino acid, the theoretically possible number of polypeptides, each one of them being 100amino acids in length, are: (a) 10020 (b) 2000 (c) 20100 (d) 410000 22. If a cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes just after completion of mitotic telophase, how many chromatids were present in metaphase? (a) 92 (b) 46 (c) 69 (d) 184 23. Which one of the following is untrue? (a) India is a host country for TPN 1 (b) Iran is a host country for TPN 3 (c) TPN -6 is related to drought management (d) India is not a party to UNCCD (United Nation Convention to Combat Desertification) 24. In India tropical even green wet forest is restricted to: (a) Malabar coast &.Assam (b) Malabar coast & Western Himalaya (c) Coromandal Coast and Punjab (d) Coromandal Coast & Nilgiri 25. which of the following is not true regarding Tropical Savvanah: (a) it has C4 plants which has level of primary productivity (b) Linaaos and campas are tropical savannah (c) Rainfall occur through out the year (d) Well developed root system in the upper region 26. Arrange the3 following ion the decreasing order of EFP I USA II Canada III Japan IV India (a) b, c, a, d (b) a, b, c, d (c) d,c, a, b (d) c, a, b, d 27. The phrase “cultural eutrophication” denotes: (a) Industrial pollution (b) Organic pollution from human wastes (c) Air pollution (d) Noise pollution 28. the area of productive ecosystem outside city that is required to support life in the city is termed as _______ of city. (a) ecological footprint (b) technoecosystem (c) cybernetics (d) agro ecosystems 29. The equation 􀡲􀡻􀡻􀡰 􀡱􀡺􀡱􀡾􀡳􀢅 􀡭􀡿􀡿􀡵􀡹􀡵􀡸􀡭􀢀􀡱 􀢞 􀫚􀫙􀫙 􀡲􀡻􀡻􀡰 􀡱􀡺􀡱􀡾􀡳􀢅 􀡵􀡺􀡳􀡱􀡿􀢀􀡱􀡰 􀵌 􀢄 Here X stands for: (a) photosynthetic efficiency (b) assimilation efficiency (c) net production efficiency (d) ecological efficiency 30. The amino acid with an asymmetric carbon atom in its side chain is: (a) Glyeline (b) Valine (c) Leucinie (d) Isoleucins ____________________________________________ SET 2 1. Speed of sound would be maximum in: (a) air (b) wood (c) air at 100°C (d) Water another device 2. Transverse seismic waves cannot propagate through the entire section of the earth because of the liquid nature of the: (a) Upper mantle (b) Lower mantle (c) Outer core (d) Inner core 3. Which among the following remains invariant when light passes nom one medium to another medium? (a) Velocity (b) Wave length (c) Frequency (d) Intensity 4. What is BLUETOOTH in Computer? (a) One way data transfer from a device to another device (b)Wireless data transfer for short range between two devices (c) Wireless network device (d) High speed data transfer wirelessly 5. INSAT4A was launched from: (a) Russia (b) France (c) French Guiana (d) India 6. Range of Prithvi is: (a) 1000 kms (b) 2500 kms (c) 3500 kms (d) 5000 kms 7. One Nibble is: (a) Two bits (b) Four bits (c) Eight bits (d)Sixteen bits 8. Which among there is not operating system for desktop? (a) Solaris (b) Machintos (c) Symbias (d) DOS 9. Which among the following is a scientific language? (a) C (c) FORTRAN (b) VB (d) Java 10. Which force is responsible for changing direction of wind when it crosses Northern hemisphere to southern hemisphere? (a) Centrifugal force (b) Coriolis force (c) Lorentz force (d) Gravitational force 2 11. The product of Reimer-Timer reaction is: (a) Benzoic Acid (b) Salicylic Acid (c) Carbolic Acid (d) Phenophthalic Acid 12. The Oxidation Number of the Mn in KMn04 is: (a) +5 (b) +6 (c) +7 (d) +8 13. Limx=0Xx is: (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) e (d) infinity 14. The radius of convergence of 􀝂􁈺􀝔􁈻 􀵌 􀬵 􁈺􀭸􀬿􀬵􁈻􁈺􀭸􀬿􀬶􁈻􁈺􀭸􀬿􀬷􁈻􁈺􀭸􀬿􀬸􁈻 is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 15. If f(x) is odd function of x then ∫−aa f (x)dx is: (a) 2 ∫−aa f (x)dx (b) 0 (c) ∞ (d) ∫ a f x dx 0 ( ) 16. Consider nine numbers 1, 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 & 9. Then find the probability of product of three numbers chosen differently to be odd. (a) 3/5 (b) 5/42 (c) 1/3 (d) 5/9 17. The catalyst used in Friedal crafts -Alkylation reaction is: (a) AlCl3 (b) Anhydrous AlCl3 (c) HgCl2 (d) HgCl 18. Which is not the source of calcium? (a) Milk (b) Egg (c) Rice (d) Cheese 19. Magnus effect is based on: (a) Newton's Third Law (b) Terrisoli Law (c) Bernoulli Law (d) Archdemidise Law 20. Sex in a body is determined by: (a) Mother (b) Father (c) Both (d) Arbitrary 21. Diamond structure is: (a) bcc (b) fcc (c) one fcc displaced diagonally one forth on the other (d) hcp 22. Xylem contributes to: (a) Food storage (b) support & conduction of minerals (c) organic chemicals (d) all of the above 23. Professor C.N.R. Rao is related to: (a) Chemistry & Material Science (b) Tele communication (c) Astrophysics (d) Meta physics 24. Kidney Stone is: (a) Calcium Sulphate (b) Calcium Oxalate (c) Magnisium Sulphate (d) Sodium Sulphate 25. The average elevation of continents from sea level is: (a) 200m (b) 800m (c) 400m (d) 1200 m 26. The Deepest Trench in Indian Ocean is: (a) Java Trench (b) Sund Trench (c) Diamantia Trench (d) Mariana Trench 27. Indian Institute of Pulses Research is situated at: (a) Delhi (b) Pune (c) Kanpur (d) Chennai 28. The Black hole is: (a) A hole in space (b) A curvative in space and time (c) Retarded time (d) Retarded space 29. The decimal 15 in binary representation is lxyl. The values of x and yare: (a) x=0, y=0 (b) x=l, y=1 (c) x=l, y=0 (d) x=0, y=1 30. The latest processor for desktop by Intel is: (a) Pentium A (b) Pentium D (c) Pentium C (d) Pentium M ____________________________________________________________________________________________________ Complied by Abhay Kumar, Ph.D., Molecular Biology and Biotechnology, Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi. © 2007 abhay_iari@yahoo.co.in 3 CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 1 PART-A 1. A ball is dropped from a height of 1 meter, collision with floor is inelastic and ball looses half the energy after collision. What would be the total vertical distance covered by the ball before it comes to resta. 2 m b. 2.5 m c. 3 m d. 4 m 2. Objects can not be seen from the corner of building but sound produced at back of building can be heard because of -a. Diffraction b. Interference c. Reverbation of sound from building d. Refraction of sound 3. If two charges ‘+q’ and ‘-4q’ are placed on X-axis as shown in diagram. Where a another charge ‘+q’ must be placed on Xaxis that it do not experience any force a. d/2 b. d c. -d d. -4d 4. Length of two vectors A and B is equal. Sum of A and B is thrice of A-B. Then the angle between the vectors A and B will be a. cos-(3/4) b. cos-(1/4) c. cos-(1/√2) d. cos-(√3/2) 5. Wavelength of one light waves is λ while other have λ/2 but then also they have the same intensity I. Then the ratio of number of photons associated with each light waves is a. 21 21 = nn b. 21 21 = nn c. 23 21 = nn d. 1 21 = nn 6. If atom A is at corners of cube while atom B is located at body center, then probable formula for the compound will be a. AB b. AB2 c. A2B d. A3B 7. Among the following which equation best represents the formation of proton from neutron a. 10N􀃆11P + -10e b. 10N􀃆01P + -11e + v c. 10N􀃆11P + -10e + v d. 10N􀃆11P + -11e + v 8. Consider the following compounds (i) BF3 (ii) Ethene (iii) cyclopropene Out of these which compounds have planar triagonol geometry a. i only b. i and iii c. i and ii d. i, ii and iii 9. Volume of most of liquids shrinks when they freezes but volume of water increases when it converts into ice. On basis of this we can conclude that a. Freezing point decreases with pressure b. There is non-characteristic curve obtained during solid-liquid transition c. Triple point of water is not affected by pressure d. Boiling point of water decreases on removal of pressure 10. Among the following which graph correct represent relationship between P and V for ideal gas (answer b) 11. If f(x)=ex(3x3-2x2+3x-5), then f(x) will be a. ex(x2-x2+5x) b. ex(3x2+3x-3) c. ex(4x2-3x-2) d. ex(x2-x2+x-1) CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 2 12. The value for term described below will be 4 2 2 32 2 4 3 ++ a. 5 2 2 + 2 2 b. 5 4 2 2 3 + c. 5 2 − 2 2 d. 5 3− 2 2 13. Consider the following equation Y= ⏐x+1⏐+ ⏐x-1⏐. The graphical representation for above equation will be 14. Consider the ΔABC. If length BC is 10 cm and triangle is divided horizontally into nine zones by line P1, P2, P3…P9 which are parallel to BC. The total length of all lines from P1 to P9 will be a. 40 b. 80 c. 45 d. 90 15. If a weight of one elephant is 10,000 kg and of a rat is 10 g. Then amount of calories needed to maintain constant body temperature for one elephant and for 10,0000 rats will be a. More for elephant b. More for rat c. Both will require equal calories d. Calories are not needed to maintain body temperature 16. The DNA sequence for two DNA was found to be different then also they code similar protein. It may be due to a. Start of transcription at different sites b. Using similar enzymes for transcription c. More the one codon can code single amino acid d. Due to mutation in DNA 17. If inheritance of disease to next generation is only possible through females. The probable inheritance is a. Sex-linked b. Mendelian c. Organeller d. Autosomal 18. Till date we have not succeeded in generating vaccine against HIV because a. It has reverse transcriptase b. It mutates rapidly c. It don’t have any protein over its surface d. It is intracellular pathogen 19. The key difference between Lamarckism and Darwinism is a. Genes are made up of DNA not RNA b. DNA codes for proteins c. Variations are at random d. Evolution is abrupt 20. Among the following which process does not remove CO2 from environment? a. Photosynthesis b. Eruption of Volcano c. Dissolution in Oceans d. Weathering of rocks 21. During ice age there was large ice deposit at poles and thus there was large temperature gradient between poles-Equator. The wind velocity at that time would have been a. Stronger in summers b. Stronger in Winters c. Stronger in all seasons d. No effect was seen CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 3 27. Among the following which is not an hardware bus/port 22. Same face of moon is visible one earth during its orbital revolution of 28 days. Considering earth as stationary then with reference to earth correct statement for the rotation of moon over its axis is a. USB b. CMOS c. Printer Port d. Mouse Port a. Moon completes 28 rotation in 28 days in same direction to earth. 28. b. Moon completes 28 rotation in 28 days opposite in direction to earth. c. Moon completes 1 rotation in 28 days in same direction to earth. d. Moon completes 1 rotation in 28 days opposite in direction to earth. Consider the following flow diagram. If 1001 means from STATE A move to STATE B then to STATE C return to STATE B and then to STATE A. The STATE achieved after following code 001100010010 23. We can find terrestrial rocks as old as 3 billion year but rocks more then 200 million is not seen in oceans because a. During this period rock dissolves in ocean b. In 200 MY rocks subduct into floor of ocean a. STATE A b. STATE B c. Sensitive techniques to study age are not present c. STATE C d. STATE D d. Weathering of rocks takes place in 200 MY 29. Consider the programme n=0 If n >2 24. Budha statue of limestone at Ladakh would be preserved for longer time then one at Sri Lanka because Factorial ‘f’ Else i=f(n-1)+f(n-2) return a. Humidity at Sri Lanka is more If initial value n=5, then output of the b. Sri Lanka is close to equator program will be c. Peoples care less in Sri Lanka a. 0 b. 4 d. Both will be preserved for same time c. 5 d. No result will be produced 25. Tsunami are more common in Japan than any other part of world because 30. What would be the output of the a. There are many islands following program if b. Wave velocity is very vigorous Smallest integer≥x c. There are many seaquakes Float i d. It is in pacific sea Input i i=[i /2] 26. There are various electronic gates like OR, AND, NOR, XOR etc. Which GATE is described as universal? Return Initial value of i= 7 a. 0 b. 1 a. OR b. AND c. XOR d. NOR c. 7 d. 3 CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 4 PART B 31. Cell fusion is an essential phenomenon in development of a. Nerve b. Muscle c. Spleen d. Liver 32. Gibberllic acid activates α-amylase activity in a. Endosperm b. Aleuronic layer c. Cotyledons d. Embryo 33. Protein RNAase A have 8 cysteine residue which involves in 4 disulphide bond formation in a random manner. If the probability for formation of first correct disulphide bond is 1/7, then what would be the probability that all four correct disulphide bonds are formed a. 1/28 b. 1/32 c. 1/105 d. 1/210 34. Light signals for flowering is received by a. Flower bud b. Shoot apex c. Leaves d. Flower bract 35. Which hormone induces formation of Late Embryogenesis Abundant (LEA) protein during seed maturation? a. Gibberllic acid b. Ethylene c. Abscisic acid d. Cytokinin 36. Effective population size for completely monogamous species having 40 males and 10 females would be a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 37. Musk deer is abundant in a. Gharwal Himalaya b. Eastern Himalaya c. Kumau Himalaya d. All 38. Among the following which follows the population growth pattern according to equation dN/dt=rN when no limitating force is acting (answer b) 39. Among the following ecological factor which is density independent factor a. Food b. Predation c. Disease d. Extreme temperatures 40. The curve for renaturation of denaturated DNA a. Linear b. Inverse c. Direct d. Hyperbolic 41. Among the following which has highest Productivity/Biomass ratio a. Opean sea b. Large lakes c. Rain forests d. Grassland 42. Patch of evergreen forest surrounded by grassland is termed as a. Prarie b. Pampas c. Chapprals d. Shola 43. The correlation between species richness and productivity is a. Species richness directly increases as increase in productivity b. Species richness has inverse relation to productivity c. Species richness and productivity is independent d. Species richness is maximum at intermediate levels of productivity CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 5 44. In a massive earthquake on island only few related species of lizards survived and occupied the island. The phenomenon is also referred as a. Founder effect b. Bottle Neck effect c. Vodka-Bertoni effect d. Darwin’s effect 45. Numerical taxonomy involves a. Overall similarity b. Phylogenetic relationship c. Evolutionary relationship d. Molecular taxonomy 46. Genetic Drift occurs by a. Chance b. Immigration c. Emigration d. Mutation 47. Organism inhabiting water scarce environment are likely a. Uricotelic b. Ureotellic c. Ammonotellic d. to have small kidney size 48.Circadian rhythms are controlled by a. Medulla b. Cortex c. Pituatory gland d. Suprachaismatic nucleus 49. What is prophage a. λ phage DNA b. Stage of cell cycle c. DNA of temperate phage inserted into host chromosome d. A transposons 50. Among the following which plant family can be separated on basis of inflorescence a. Asteraceae b. Euphorbiaceae c. Leguminosae d. Solanacae 51. DNA sequence responsible for chromatid separation is a. Kinetochore b. Centromere c. Satellite d. Telomere 52. Glycoconjugates on proteins in intra cellular membranes are oriented toward a. Cytoplasmic face b. Lumen side c. Embedded in membrane d. On both sides 53. Which of the histone protein is not involved in nucleosome assembly? a. H1 b. H2A c. H2B d. H4 54. Synthesis of Betalain is characteristics of family a. Chenopodiacae b. Carophyllaceae c. Asteraceae d. Solanaceae 55. The book by Rachel Carson -‘Silent Spring’ is related with a. Environmental pollution b. Use of pesticides in agriculture c. Flowering in spring season d. Effect of pesticides on non-target organism 56. The mechanism of action of steroid hormone is a. Binding to membrane receptor and activating secondary messenger b. Binding to cytosolic receptor and hormone-receptor complex activates target gene expression c. Hormone moves to nucleus and starts transcription d. Hormone effect mainly protein synthesis 57. On buyout density centrifugation of certain DNA band was observed as high peak corresponding to low density as compare to other DNA. It means a. DNA is AT rich b. DNA is GC rich c. Equal AT to GC ratio d. Single Stranded DNA CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 6 58.Which of the following can induce SOS response in bacteria a. Thymidine dimmers b. Hydorxylamine c. 5-Fluro Uracil d. 2-Aminopurine 59. Cyanobacteria out competes the green algae in eutrophic lakes due to organic pollutions because they can a. tolerate low oxygen level b. tolerate high phosphorus level c. fix nitrogen, so it is not limitating for them d. low light is required for photosynthesis 60. The organism with high parental care will also show a. Semelparity b. Iteroperety c. Maturation at early stage d. Small size of offsprings 61. If any one of the parent invest more time for parental care on offsprings it would lead to differences in a. Life span b. Mental level c. Metabolism d. Differential sex mate 62. The development of social behavior is related to a. Complex Brain size b. Genetic relatedness c. Size of population d. Size of organism 63. The correct graphical representation of a bacteria growing exponentially under depleting nutrient condition is (answer C) 64. The acidic nature of orange juice is mainly due to citric acid. What would be pH of 0.1 M citric acid, if K1 for citric acid is 8.4 X 10-4 a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 65. Vavilov’s origin of centre for sorghum is a. South East Asia b. Central Africa c. India d. East Asia 66. Oogenesis in human females results in a. 1 egg and 3 polar bodies b. 2 egg and 2 polar bodies c. 3 egg and 1 polar bodies d. 1 egg and 1 polar bodies 67. Direct correlation between recombination frequency and distance between genes can be disturbed by presence a. Heterochromatin region between genes b. Exons c. Introns d. Euchromatin 68. Among the following interactions which will not force co-evolution a. Commensalisms b. Parasitism c. Mutualism d. Interspecific competition 69. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria represents a. Balancing selection b. Stabilizing selection c. Directional selection d. Disruptive selection CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 7 70. In a population a single gene locus has two alleles A and a with allele frequency of ‘a’= 0.3. If genotype Aa is lethal and only individual with genotype AA and aa are favored then over several generation a. Allele frequency will be 1:1 b. Allele frequency will remain same to that of present c. Allele ‘a’ would be lost from population d. Genetic drift will be seen 71. The most variable stage of cell cycle is a. G1 b. G2 c. Go d. S 72. Among the following which order of arthropods has maximum species richness a. Hymenoptera b. Lepidoptera c. Coleoptera d. Diptera 73. The probability of a son to be color blind for parent with colorblind father and normal homozygous mother would be a. 0 % b. 25 % c. 50 % d. 100 % 74. Which statement is correct for following biological reaction: C6H12O6+6O2􀃆6CO2+6H2O a. Entropy of system will increase b. Enthalpy for system will increase c. Free Energy for system will increase d. No change would be seen in free energy 75. Second most affecting green house gas after CO2 is a. Methane b. NOx c. CFC d. Ozone 76. Among the following which gas was totally absent during period of primitive origin of life a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Methane d. Ammonia 77. If a certain parasitic bacteria on insect prevents cross breeding among them. It will lead into a. rapid speciation b. Divergence of insects c. Extinction of insects d. No effect 78. Among the following which compound links glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle a. Acetyl Co A b. Pyruvic Acid c. Glucose d. Oxaloacetic acid 79. Secretion of histamine by degranulation from which cell leads in immediate hypersensitivity a. Basophils b. Mast cells c. T-helper cells d. B-cells 80. Which cell is involved in eliminating antigen by non-specifically by engulfing them a. phagocytotic cells b. T-helper cells c. Killer T-cells d. B-cells 81. Recently reptile fossils of age 200-250 MY have been found in Brazil and Ghanaportion of West Africa. The landmass during that period was a portion of a. Pangea b. Laurasia c. Gondwana d. Tethys Sea 82. Among the following which gene is not concerned with induction of cancer a. Src b. Ras c. P53 d. Actin 83. The morphological distinct sexual dimorphism is absent in a. Peacock, Myena, bulbul b. Crow, peacock, bulbul c. Hyena, bulbul, Sparrow d. Myena, bulbul, Koel CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 8 84. Among the following Mendelian inheritance is obeyed by a. Quantitative traits b. Transposons c. Organelles d. Gene for vertical transfer of disease 85. Which species concept stress mainly on failure of interbreeding to keep them in distinct species a. Biological species concept b. Ecological species concept c. Morphological species concept d. Phylogenetic species concept 86. The cells of warm blooded animals can be best stored at temperatures a. 37 0C b. 0 0 C c. -100 0C d. -196 0C 87. The polysome can be describes as a. A special ribosome occurring in prokaryotes b. A DNA strand which is being transcribed by may RNA polymerase c. String of RNA occupied by many ribosomes d. Involved in control of transcription in prokaryotes 88. If there is no correct initiation of transcription. Which subunit of RNA polymerase holoenzyme would have defect a. α subunit b. β c. β’ d. σ-subunit 89. The pattern of genomic imprinting is maintained from one generation to another by a. Phosphorylation of DNA b. Methylation of DNA c. Acetylation d. Glycosylation 90. If an enzyme obeying Hills reaction shows negative cooperativity. It means a. Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme decreases affinity for other substrate to other sub-units a. Binding of substrate to any one site of single unit enzyme decreases affinity for other substrate c. Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme increases affinity for other substrate to other sub-units d. Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme makes enzyme nonfuntional 91. In mitochondria succinyl CoA synthetase produces a. ATP b. ADP c. GTP d. AMP 92. λ-phage insert their DNA into bacterial host. The site for recombination on host is termed asa. attP b. attB c. Xis d. Int 93. A person heterozygous for sickle cell anemia has advantage for both malaria and sickle cell anemia. It illustrates a. Directional selection b. Heterozygote advantage c. Disruptive selection d. Directed mutation selection 94. Vibrio cholrae causes diahorrea by a. Opening ion channels b. Constitutive expression of adenylate cyclase c. Closing absorption of water from gut epithelium d. Destroys cells of intestinal lining CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE PAPER-DEC 2006 (Memory Based) Developed By: IFAS (+9188293-59559) A-318, Shastri Nagar, Jodhpur (Raj.) 9 95. The fungus which is pathogenic to human is a. Candida albicans b. Saccromyces cervesae c. Penicillium d. Rhyzopus 96. The eukaryotic mitochondria is more similar to a. Bacteria b. Virus c. protist d. moulds 97. During photorespiration which organelle is involved in conversion of glycolate into glyoxylate a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Chloroplast d. Nucleus 98. Which pump is activated by light during closure of stomata a. H+-ATPase b. K+-ATPase c. Na+-H+-ATPase d. Na+-K+-ATPase 99. The steady state hypothesis for enzyme suggest that a. Rate of formation of ES complex by substrates is equal to rate of breakdown of ES complex into products b. Rate of formation of ES complex is equal to rate of formation of products c. Rate of formation of ES complex and its dissociation into E and S are equal d. Enzyme are steadily consumed in the reaction 100. Which is correct for α-helix of a protein a. It has H-bonding in two or more parallel running chains b. There is interchain H-bonding in single helix c. No H-bonding is seen d. is tertiary structure INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES A premier Institute for CSIR NET Lifesciences and GATE Lifesciences A-318, SHASTRI NAGAR, JODHPUR B-7, SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHPUR Contact Details: +9198293-59559 http://ifashome.tripod.com http://csirnetlifesciences.tripod.com e-mail:ifasnet@gmail.com Note: 􀂃 Answers are marked with red color 􀂃 IFAS shall not be responsible for any incorrect question or answer. 􀂃 If you find any mistake do inform us, it will help us in making corrections if there any CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 1 1. There are various types of bonds in chemistry like metallic bond, Ionic bond, Wandervall and hydrogen bond. Among the following the weakest bond is a. Ionic b. Metallic c. Hydrogen d. Wandervalls 2. Consider the following chemical reaction in which rate of forward reaction (K+) is 1/sec and rate of backward reaction is 107 /sec If reaction starts with one atom of substrate A, then what would be the concentration of B at equilibrium? a. 1 b. 107 c. 10-7 d. 106 3. Find the oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 a. +1 b. +7 c. -7 d. -1 4. In routine lab practice for dilution of concentrated sulphuric acid generally it is advised to add drops of sulphuric acid in water instead of water in concentrated sulphuric acid because a. Pure Sulphuric acid is very costly b. It is an endothermic reaction c. It is an exothermic reaction d. Latent heat of water is low 5. If equal volumes of solid, liquid or vapour state of water is filled in thermos. Molecules of which state of matter will possess maximum mean kinetic energy a. Solid b. Liquid c. Vapour d. All will have same 6. In plants water is transported from roots to shoots via a. Xylem b. Phloem c. Apoplast d. Symplast 7. Among the following organelles where you will NOT find the process of transcription of genes a. Nucleolus b. Chloroplast c. Mitochondria d. Plasma membrane 8. Most common reason for genetic change from one generation to next generation among humans is a. Mutation b. Segregation c. Recombination d. Environmental 9. In females which hormone is related with regulation of estrous cycle a. Cortisol b. Insulin c. Progesterone d. ACTH 10. The speed of nerve impulse in humans is a. 10 μm/sec b. 10 mm/sec c. 10 m/sec d. 10 km/sec 11. If a 0.5 Km asteroid from space hits the earth. Among the following in which area of world would be least likely impact on lifea. Sahara desert b. South east Asia c. North America d. Mid pacific Ocean 12. The major cause behind the damage of historical buildings like Tajmahal is a. Atmospheric Ozone b. Presence of Sulphuric acid in environment c. Increased CO2 concentration d. Polluted water in rivers 13. Half life of Uranium-238 is 4.468 x 109 years. At present in any rock the concentration of 238U is equal to concentration of Pb, then the age of rock will be a. 4.468 x 109 years b. 4.468 x 104 years. c. 2.234 x 109 years. d. 1.117 x 109 years. 14. The main reason behind earth’s magnetic field a. Presence of Diamagnetic iron in earth’s core b. Matter present on Earth curst c. Motion of iron in liquefied core d. Due to impact of asteroids 15. The main reason for presence of circum-pacific ocean seismic belt is a. Union of Continent and Oceanic Plates b. Subduction of oceanic plates into continental plates c. Sea floor spreading d. More human disturbance 16. If p implies q and q implies r. It is given that q is true it meansa. both p and q are true b. both p and q are false c. p is true and q false d. p is false and q is true 17. On sudden power failure, information of which memory will be NOT lost in computera. RAM and CD b. Floppy and Hardisk c. PRAM and ROM d. Floppy and EP-RAM 18. How many values of integer with sign magnitude can be stored in 8 bits a. – 511 to + 511 b. 255 and 0 c. -127 to +127 d. -128 to +128 19. Among the following which language is more near to one which is used by computer for execution of its programs a. C b. BASIC c. Assembly language d. SQL CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES 2 B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 20. Half life of a radioactive element is one year. If at present there is one atom what is probability that it will not decay in next two years a. ½ b. 1 c. ¼ d. 0 21. Consider a weightless pulley, wire and spring as shown in figure. At balanced state what would be extension in spring a. 1 m b. 0.5 m c. 0.5 cm d. 0.1 cm 22. In the figure blow A and B are two points on wire, R is resistance and D is diode, wire is finally grounded at end The effect of applied voltage VA at point A on point B (VB ) can be represented as-23. An element was having 3 x 1020 atoms at beginning of decay. At present it has 1020 atoms, then half life of element is a. Log 3/2 b. Log 3/2 c. Log 2 d. Log 3 24. Consider the given figure In the figure A1B1 , A2B2, A3B3 …. are parallel to each other similarly B1A2, B2A3…are parallel to each other. If distance between AoA1 and A1A2 is 1 cm, then what would be length of A2A3, A3A4….AnAn+1, if n > 1 a. 1 b. n +1 c. n2 +1 d. n (n+1) 25. Length of common chord between two circles is given by equations (x-z)2 + y2 = 4 x2 + (y-z)2 = 4 The length of chord is a. 2 b. 2√2 c. √2 d. 3√2 26. ( )( ) ( )( )42 2 lim 0 1 1 1 − + +− + + ⎯⎯⎯→ x xx it x x 27. The number of solution of given differential equation will be if initial value if x=0 and y=0 dy = 0 dx dx dy a. one b. two c. zero d. Infinity 28. If x is real integer, then the solution of equation will be F(x) = log x(loge x) will be a. o b. 1 c. infinity d. cannot be predicted 29. Number of subsets in set of ‘n’ integer will be a. n b. 2 n c. n+1/2 d. n (n+1)/2 30.If the wavelength associated with first member of Balmer series is 6563 nm, what would be the wavelength of next member a. 6563 b. 1213 c. 4862 d. 3256 CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES 3 B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 PART-B 1. Activity of Receptor tyrosine kinase is regulated by a. Phosphorylation b. dephosphorylation c. Methylation d. Acetylation 2. Which of the following cell possess poly morpho nucleus a. B-cells b. Neutrophils c. Macrophage d. Erythrocyte 3. DNA fragmentation is a characteristic feature of a. Cell Death b. Mutation c. Cancer growth d. Cell division 4. Complete photosynthetic apparatus of chloroplast necessary for photosynthesis is coded by a. Nuclear gene b. chloroplast gene c. Nuclear and chloroplast gene d. Chloroplast and mitochondrial genes 5. Characteristic feature of k-selected species is a. High intrinsic rate of growth b. Small size and large number of offsprings c. Lager age at first reproduction d. Short life span 6. Correct statement regarding the effect of ozone on biosphere is a. Both atmospheric and stratospheric ozone is beneficial b. Both atmospheric and stratospheric ozone is harmful c. Atmospheric ozone is harmful but stratospheric ozone is beneficial d. Atmospheric ozone is beneficial but stratospheric ozone is harmful 7. During evolution if a single species give rise to many descendents of different phylogenetic taxons, it is termed as a. clade b. cline c. cluster d. clone 8. Biological species concept cannot be applied on a. Parthenogenic species b. Sympatric species c. Species producing viable hybrids d. Species of aquatic ecosystem 9. Increase in amount of the following is NOT a consequence of sewage effluents in river system a. Microbial load b. Phosphate level c. Dissolved Oxygen d. Cynaobacterial density 10. In grasslands ergot feeds follows grazing cows. Cow during grazing exposes insects from grasses to ergots. This is an example of a. Commensalisms b. parasitism c. Ammensalism d. Mutualism 11. Curve which best explains the a population growing logistically is (Answer c) 12. The plant species which produces both oil and dye is a. Sesamum indicum b. Canavalia gladicosa c. Carthamus tinctorius d. Riccinus cumminis 13. Differences at species and sub species level and gene flow between populations is best illustrated by a. Allozymes b. Amino acid sequence c. Double diffusion serology d. Isoelectric focusing 14. Biodiversity hot spots are characterized on the basis of a. Endemic flowering plants and threat perception b. Endemic flowering plants c. Species of flowering plants d. Threat perception 15. Sustainable harvesting for a fish population growing logistically is done at a. Above carrying capacity b. At carrying capacity c. At half of the carrying capacity d. At lowest level 16. Consider the following assumptions i. All known living organisms possess parasites ii. A single host species can harbor more then one type of parasites iii. Parasites are species specific From above information it can be concluded that a. Species of host organism is more then parasites b. Species of parasites is more then host organisms c. Number of parasites is equal to number of hosts d. no valid conclusion can be drawn CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 4 17. Dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea (DCMU) inhibits photosynthesis at photosystem during a. phe􀃆QA b. QA􀃆QB c. Cyt bf6􀃆 PC d. QB􀃆Cytbf6 18. The bacteria can be best stored under starvation at 40C then at 370C because a. Membrane freezes b. Overall metabolic activity is lowered c. Increases enzyme efficiency d. Large mortality so low competition 19. Which of the following index does not show relative abundance of species a. Shanon-weaver b. Simpson c. Brillion d. Species richness 20. In caryophyllales the type of sieve tube plastid is a. Type-III P b. Type-S c. Type-C d. Type-A 21. Cardiac muscles can not be tetanized because a. Resistant to tetanus toxin b. autorythmicity c. Long Refractory period d. highly evolved muscles 22. Correct order for increasing order of primary productivity is a. Ocean-Desert-Tropical deciduous forest-Tropical rain forest b. Desert-Tropical deciduous-Ocean-Tropical rain forest c. Tropical rain forest-Ocean-Tropical deciduous-Deserts d. Tropical deciduous-Desert-Ocean-Tropical rain forest 23. Silica cells are present in the member of family a. Annonaceae b. Poacaeae c. Orchidaceae d. Lamaceae 24. Type III survivorship curve is shown by a. Birds b. Pelagic fishes c. Humans d. Phytophagous insects 25. The dwarfing gene which was responsibe for green revolution is involved in signal transduction of over expression of a. Gibberlic acid b. Cytokinin c. Absicic acid d. Ethylene 26. Anemia due to lack of hemoglobin is associated with a. Iron deficiency b. Calcium deficiency c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12 27. Among the following hypothalum peptide hormone which is smallest a. GnRH b. CRH c. TRH d. GH-RH 28. According to present concept the main cause of extinction of dinosaurs was a. Meteorite striking b. Competition c. Environment change d. Unknown 29. Fat soluble vitamins involved in bone formation and blood clotting are a. Vit D and Vit K b. Vit B and Vit D c. Vit D and Vit B d. Vit A and Vit K 30. In E. coli lac operon is positively as well as negatively regulated. It means a. E. coli depends only on glucose b. Depends only on lactose c. Can use both glucose and lactose simultaneously d. Use lacose only when glucose is absent 31. Replicative transposons increases their copy number by replicating its copies and inserting into new position while keeping its copy at orginal place. The enzyme involved in this process are a. Transposase b. Transposase and Integrase c. Transposase and Resolvase d. Transposase, Resolvase and Integrase 32. Generally limiting factor for primary productivity in aquatic ecosystem is a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus c. Sulphur d. Carbon 33. During opening of stomata which ions are transported from neighboring cells to guard cells a. K+ ion b. Cl-ion c. Na+ ion d. Ca++ ions 34. Inhibitor of RNA polymerase during elongation of transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes is a. Rifamcin b. α-aminitin c. Streptomycin d. Actinomycin-D 35. C-value paradox suggest us about a. Colinearity between genome size and complexity of organism b. Non-colinearity between genome size and complexity of organism c. Dosage compensation d. Number of chromosomes 36. Concentration of urine in mammals depends on a. Glomerulus’s b. Length of Henley’s loop c. Osmotic pressure of blood d. Size of organism CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 5 37. If organism is triploid , then hardy-weinberg theorem applicable will be a. (p+q)3 b. (p+q)2 c. (p+q+r)3 d. (p+q+r)2 38. During the process of selection if number of individuals are more in heterozygote state as compare to both homozygote, under such condition a. Both alleles will coexist in population b. Only dominant alleles will exist c. Only recessive alleles will exist d. Both the alleles will be lost 39. In honey bee queen and workers are diploid while male are haploid. If a queen honey bee is fertilized with equal number of sperms from two different males, then genetic relatedness in progeny will be a. 0.75 b. 0.5 c. 0.46 d. 0.25 40. If mutation changes codon in such a way that there is no effect on functioning and overall structure of protein. This type of mutation is termed as a. Silent b. Mis-sense c. Transition d. Frameshift 41. Which statement is true about nucleosome model of chromatin in eukaryotes a. It consist of one unit each of H2A, H2B, H3 , H4 and 200 bp of DNA b. It consist of two unit each of H2A, H2B, H3 , H4 and 200 bp of DNA c. It consist of H1 and 200 bp DNA d. It consist of histone and non-histone proteins 42. Genetically identical nucleus are present in embryo sac of type a. Polygonum b. Adoxa c. Plumbago d. Fratillium 43. YAC behaves similar to normal chromosomes because it possess a. Centromere b. Centromere and telomere c. Telomere and ARS d. Centromere, telomere and ARS 44. Angiosperms originated during a. Upper cretaceous b. mid cretaceous c. Lower Jurassic d. Carboniferrous 45. Paternal grandfather is hemophilic, what is probability of his grandson to be hemophilic a. ½ b. ¼ c. 1/8 d. 0 46. Lipid phase transition and movement can be studies using a. ESR b. NMR c. Electron microscopy d. Phase contrast microscopy 47. Split genes are present in a. All eukaryotes b. Most of eukaryotes and some archaebacteria c. Most of eukaryotes and some eubacteria d. All organisms 48. Sucrose doesnot occur in its anomeric form while its hydrolyzed product glucose and fructose have anomers. The reason is a. C1 of glucose and C1 of fructose are bonded in glycosidic linkage b. C1 of glucose and C2 of fructose are bonded in glycosidic linkage c. Sucrose is polysaccharide d. Sucrose is not soluble in water 49. Darwinian finches of three different size of beaks-large, intermediate and small feeds on seeds size with bimodial distribution (large and small). Under such condition natural selection will favor finches having beak size a. Intermediate b. Large c. Large and Small d. Large and Intermediate 50. All of the mendelian alleles for different traits showed a. Epitasis b. Co dominance c. Incomplete dominance d. Dominance and recessiveness 51. UV-B induced damage of DNA by formation of pyrimidine dimmers are repaired by photolase on activation by a. UV-C light b. Green light c. Blue light d. IR light 52. If two bacterial culture are growing exponentially with different in their intrinsic rate of growth. The difference in population of both will differ a. Increase linearly b. Decrease linearly c. Increase exponentially d. Decrease exponentially 53. Translocation of photosynthate in plants occurs through a. Xylem b. Phloem c. Cambium d. Endodermis CSIR NET LIFESCIENCE-JUNE 2007 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES B-7 SARASWATI NAGAR, JODHUR (Raj) Contact: +91 98293-59559 6 54. During evolution first multicellular organisms appeared during a. 1 billion years ago b. 2 billions c. 600 millions d. 200 millions 55. The amount of radiation hitting the retina per second is 2 x 106 Js of wavelength 600 A0. The number of photons received per second by eye is (h=6.64 x 10-34 sec-1) a. 6000 b. c. d. 56. The most probable amino acid occurring at bents and turns of polypeptide is a. Proline b. Leucine c. Phenyl alanine d. Trypotophan 57. Among the following which statement is correct regarding the promoter of the gene a. It is always located upstream of transcription start site b. It is located downstream of translation start site c. Different promoter elements are recognized by different RNA polymerase d. Promoters are recognized due to their different secondary structures 58. Which of the following types of cells would you expect to contain a high density of cytoplasmic intermediate filaments? a. Amoeba b. Sperm c. Epithellial cells d. Plant cells 59. Sodium laural sulphate(SDS) disrupts protein by changing their a. primary structure b. primary and secondary structure c. secondary and tertiary structure d. secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure 60. Among the following which is responsible for nerve action potential a. Influx of Na+ and K+ ions b. Outflux of Na+ and K+ ions c. Influx of Na+ and outflux of K+ ions d. Outflux of Na+ and influx of K+ ions 61. Which molecule is continuously transported from nucleus to cytoplasm a. DNA b. RNA c. Histone d. Ribosomes 62. In severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome there is a. low number of neutrophils b. low number of T or B cells c. Low macrophages d. Low amount of IgG 63. In human somatic cell number of kinetochore at mitosis is a. 23 b. 44 c. 46 d. 92 64. In meiosis crossing over occur during a. Prophase-I b. Prophase-II c. Metaphase d. Anaphase 65. The order of reaction catalyzed by enzyme at low substrate concentration is a. first order b. Pseudo first order c. Second order d. Zero order 66. If the Km of enzyme for substrate A is 1 x 10-6 and for substrate B is 4 x 10-8 , it means a. Enzyme has more affinity for substrate A then substrate B b. Enzyme has more affinity for substrate B then substrate A c. Enzyme has equal affinity for substrate A and substrate B d. Enzyme is non-specific 67. In a sexually reproducing organisms which is most important barrier for speciation a. geographical b. Reproductive c. Temporal d. Ethological 68. Source of energy for Urey and Miller experiment was a. Electric spark b. UV c. Glycine d. ATP 69. Which national park is not correctly matched with its organism a. Ranthambore-Bengal Tiger b. Rajaji-Hollock gibbon c. Kanchanjanga-Rhinoceros d. Bandipur-Elephant 70. Change in allele frequency at species or below species level is termed as a. Microevolution b. Macroevolution c. Mega evolution d. Silent evolution • IFAS is not responsible for any errors or confusion. • Any suggestion/correction is welcome Mail us: ifasnet@gmail.com Visit us: http://csirnetlifesciences.tripod.com JOINT CSIR-GC TEST JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP AND ELIGIBITY FOR LECTURESHIP 18TH OF DEC 2005 COMPILED BY: ABHAY KUMAR (M.Sc. Biotechnology,I.A.R.I.) & CHANDAN Kr. GUPTA (M.Sc. Plant Physiology,CCSHAU,Hissar) Disclaimer: All the questions in this booklet is purely based on memory, any error arising as a result or otherwise lies on the user. DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited PagesIf a is a rational number and b is irrational number then a) a+b is rational b) a-b is rational c) a+b is irrational d) a-b is irrational 2. Calculate the height of the 􀏝r in the following figure a) 12/5 b) 3/4 c) 7/5 d) 4/3 3. The colored images seen on a thin film of oil is due to the effect of a) reflection b) interference c) refraction d) polarization 4. In a room of size 4m x11 m x 6 m, the mass of air contained is a) 3400 kg b) c) d) 5. Which of the following is not a programming language? a) UNIX b) PASCAL c) FORTRAN d) BASIC 6. The equation x2 + 4xy + 3 y2 = 7 represents which type of curve? a) Ellipse b) Hyperbola c) Parabola d) Circle 7. De broglie equation is represented as – a) h /2mev b) h /􀂥􀀃􀞝􀀕􀞝 mev c) h /􀂥􀀃􀞝 􀀃􀞝 􀀕􀞝 􀁐􀞝 􀁈􀞝 􀁙􀞝 􀞝 DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comd) 􀂥􀀃􀞝h􀞝/􀞝􀀕􀞝􀁐 􀞝􀁈􀞝􀁙􀞝 8. If given that A = 11; IF A􀂔10 THEN A = 12 then A = a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 9. There is a ‘V’ shaped wire POQ. B is a magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of paper . Another wire CD, slides on PQR, starting from point O to PQ and back to O at constant speed . The induced emf will resemble which of the following a) b) c) d ) 10. The most likely chance of finding fossils is in a) Metamorphic DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comb) Igneous c) Sedimentary d) 11. The polar ice is around 3 km thick . if this polar ice gets doubled in its thickness , then a) The length of day will increase b) The length of day will decrease c) d) No change 12. The mean temperature of earth is 15 C .If the temp. rises to 20 C , then the energy radiated from earth will be a) 293 /288 b) (293 /288)2 c) (293 /288)3 d) (293 /288)4 13. If C is a real no. in the following equations: 4 xy + 6 xy = 10 6 x + 9 y = c is solved for value for value of x and y , then we get a) unique solution b) infinitely many solutions c) infinitely many solutions if c = 15 d) infinitely many solutions if c 􀂏 15 14. If 􀊜x􀊜 = no. of discrete elements in set x S and T are sets with 􀊜S􀊜 =0 , 􀊜T􀊜 = 7 we must have a) 􀊜S U T􀊜 10 b) 􀊜S U T􀊜 7 c) 􀊜S U T􀊜 10 d) none 15.If in a clock ,the arm strikes 6 , six times in 30 sec , then in what time will it strike 12 , twelve times a) 30 sec b) 60 sec c) d) 16. In the industrial synthesis of NH3, the following reaction occurs N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comNow given that the bond energies of N N is kj/mol, H H is kj/mol and N H is kj /mol. The net energy budget of the process is a) +102 kj/mol b) +102 kj/mol c) -93 kj/mol d) -98 kj/mol 17. The given figure shows the rate of population growth (dN/dt) with time (t) for four different populations A,B, C and D. Which of the following population is showing a logistic growth pattern? a) A b) B c) C d) D 18. Which of the following plant gr4oups are most likely to appear first in ecological succession, starting with bare rocks? a) annual plants b) perennial plants c) mosses d) lichens 19. The anticancer chemical vinblastin is extracted from a) Catharanthus roseus b) Taxus baccta c) Mappia foetida d) Agathis australis 20. Approximately how many species of birds have been recorded in India? a) 3200 b) 500 c) 1200 d) 5700 21. Which of the following is operated by central legislation and has a permanent status? a) national parks DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comb) wild life sanctuaries c) zoological gardens d) game reserves 22. Deer differ from antelopes in that , a) they are gregarious b) both male and female have antlers c) they shed their antlers every year d) they may have more than one pair of antlers 23. Which of the following groups is well known for producing bioluminescence? a) Copepod b) Dinofflagelates c) Brown algae d) Red algae 24. Which of the following is considered a living fossil? a) Vanda caerulea b) Acrostichum aureum c) Gingko biloba d) All of the 25. The two areas designated as biodiversity hot spots in India are a) eastern Himalayas and western Himalayas b) eastern Himalayas and western Ghats c) western Ghats and Shivaliks d) eastern Himalayas and western Ghats 26. While measuring parasite div diversity , if 􀄮 stands for the mean no. of species per host individual ,􀇃 stands for the mean difference in species composition between two individual and 􀇄 stands for the total no. of species in the host [population , and if we assume 􀇄 to be constant a) Increase in 􀄮 will decrease 􀇃 b) Increase in 􀄮 will increase 􀇃 c) Increase in 􀄮 will not effect 􀇃 d) Both 􀄮 and 􀇃 have to be constant 27. The dendrogram resulting from the application of numerical taxonomical methods shows a) Evolutionary relationship b) Phylogenetic relationship c) Overall similarity d) Genetic relationship DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.com28. if the sequence of a protein and the corresponding gene is compared between two species, a) Similarity in protein will be always greater than DNA. b) Similarity in DNA will be always greater than protein. c) Similarity in protein and DNA will be always identical. d) Similarity in protein and DNA will be independent of each other. 29. if single nucleotide substitution were the only type of mutation possible, which of the following steps would be unnecessary ? a) Sequence elucidation b) Sequence alignment c) Sequence matching d) Sequence database search 30. Substrates may bind to the active sites of enzymes by all of the following EXCEPT a) Hydrogen bond b) Hydrophobic interactions c) Polar covalent bonds d) Peptide bonds 31. A 10 ml suspension of 51Cr labeled red blood cells containing 3x106 cpm was injected into an individual. After 10 min a blood sample was drawn and found to contain 5x108 cpm/ml. Therefore, the total blood volume in the individual is a) 5.8 ltr b) 6.0 ltr c) 6.2 ltr d) 6.5 ltr 32. despite having molecular weight in the range of 750 to 1500 D ,lipids are considered as macromolecules , because they a) Are insoluble in water. b) Associate readily in water to form very large aggregates. c) Are the key constituents of membrane structures. d) Associate with several proteins in a cell. 33. Which of the following statements about glycogen is NOT true? a) Glycolysis converts a single molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. b) FADH2 is produced during glycolysis. c) NADH is pr oduced during glycolysis. DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comd) The end product of glycolysis can be ethanol, lactate or acetyl CoA. 34. which amino acid has good buffering capacity against added acid at physiological Ph? a) cysteine b) glycine c) arginine d) histidine 35. Which of the following is an essential cofactor with water oxidizing process in photosynthesis? a) Mn2+ b) Zn2+ c) Mg2+ d) Ca2+ 36. The following half reactions represent a redox reaction in the mitochondria pyruvate + 2H+ +2e-lactate NADH NAD+ + H+ +2e-This implies that a) Electrons flow from pyruvate to NADH in the redox reaction. b) Electrons are picked up by pyruvate from its aq. Environment. c) Protons pick up electrons during this redox reaction. d) Electrons flow from NADH to pyruvate in the redox reaction. 37. Which of the following statements about animal hormones is NOT true? a) They can affect tissues far from their site of synthesis b) They bind to receptors on target cells. c) They must be present in large quantities to exert this effect. d) They are transported by the Humoral system. 38. Which of the following statements is true for amphibians and mammalian respiration? a) Both have positive pressure breathing. b) Both have negative pressure breathing c) Amphibians have negative pressure while mammals have positive pressure breathing. d) Amphibians have positive pressure while mammals have negative pressure breathing. 39. The developing placenta produces a) Oestrogen b) Prolactin c) Chorionic gonadotropin DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comd) Corticoids 40. The chemical structure given below is of, a) Vasopressin b)Thyroxine c) Prolactin d) Etradiol 41. the ability to concentrate urine is related to the habitat of the animal. Which of the following represents the correct order of animals with increasing ability to concentrate urine? a) Beaver < sand rat < human b) Human < sand rat < beaver c) Beaver < human < sand rat d) Sand rat < beaver < human 42. the only group of bacteria in which sporulation involves both cell-coordintion and social behaviour is a) Archeabacteria b) Bacillus spps. c) Actinomycetes d) Myxobactreia e) 43. the simultaneous development of adaptations in two or more species that interact so closely that each has a strong selective force on the other is called a) Coevolution b) Species interaction c) Complementation d) Cooperation 44. The famous evolutionary biologist Enerst Mayr was known for popularizing the a) Phylogenetic species concept b) Biological species concept c) Recognition species concept d) Ecological species concept 45. The selection that operates against the phenotypes deviating in either direction from the existing modal character is called DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.coma) Stabilizing selection b) Diversifying selection c) Disruptive selection d) Neutral selection 46. Which of the following insects virtually disappeared from England barely 30 years after adoption of Clean Air Act? a) Biston betularia typica b) Drosophila melanogaster c) Biston betularia carbonica d) Danaus plexippus 61. The greatest species diversity among marine ecosystem is recorded in – a) Coastal seas b) Deep sea habitats c) Coral reefs d) Mangroves 62. the frequency of recessive alleles a in a population is known to be 0.12 and that of the dominant one 0.88 .At Hardy Weingberg Equilibrium , approximately what percentsge of the population is expected to be heterozygous? a) 1.4 b) 10.5 c) 77 .4 d) 21.1 63. Release of high BOD water into a lake will a) Decrease the opacity of water b) Increase water borne diseases c) Decrease conductivity of water d) Decrease the dissolved oxygen in water 64. which of the following graphical representations correctly illustrates the principle that minimum strength (intensity ) and duration of stimulation are necessary to elicit a response? a) b) DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comd) c) 65. Which of the following phenomena is an instance of programmed cell death (PCD) in plants? a) Systemic acquired resistance b) Hypersensitive response c) Closure of stomata d) Photo respiration 66. De novo synthesis of amylase in aleurone layers of cereals is induced bya) gibberlins b) jasmonate c) abscissic acid d) brassinosteroids 67. deficiency of which of the following essential elements is responsible for the development of chlorosis only between the veins of young leaves ? a) Calcium DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comb) Magnesium c) Iron d) Phosphorous 68. DPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comDPDoFcuments Complete Click Here & Upgrade Expanded Features Unlimited Pages Abhay Kumar abhayiari@gmail.comMemory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 1 1. The circuit is shown as follows with a true diode and circuit is finally earthed. The relation ship between the V and I will be (Answer D) 2. The pulley system is in equilibrium as shown in figure. Neglect mass of Pulley, what would be the mass of “M” a. 10 kg b. 5 kg b. 20 kg d. 2.5 Kg 3. If an beam of electron with velocity 4X108 m/s enters along positive X axis in the magnet field 0.003 T aligned on positive Z axis. The change in path of electron will be a. Curved along negative Z axis b. Along positive Z axis c. Along negative Y axis d. Along Positive Y axis 4. Considering the earth as perfect black body. It is given that λ=2900/T where T is 290K. The maximum radiation emitted by the earth will fall in which range of Electromagnetic Spectrum a. UV b. Visible c. X-ray d. IR 5. A wire of length ‘l’ and cross section area ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another wire of length ‘2l’ and Area of cross section ‘A/2’ will have resistance equal to a. R b. 2R c. 4R d. 8R 6. When 1 gram of 238U is converted into Pb, eight α particles are emitted. The mass of Pb will be a. 0 gm b. Little less than 1 c. 1 gm d. 206/208 7. A man along with a cylinder filled with Helium gas and a balloon was sitting in a boat. He fills some of gas from cylinder to the balloon as a result balloon swells. [Hint: Do not neglect the density of air]What is effect on boat in water a. Boat will rise in water b. Boat will sink little in water c. No effect on boat d. Data are not sufficient to draw conclusion 8. Among the following which has highest boiling point a. CH3OH b. CH3CH2OH c. d. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 9. IUPAC name of given structure will be a. 2-methyl pentane b. 4 –methyl pentane c. 3 methyl hexane d. 4-methyl hexane 10. If current applied is 5 A then the amount of Cu deposited on cathode from CuSO4 in 3 min 13 sec will be [Given: mol wt of Cu= , S= ,O=16 and Faraday constant = ] a. b. c. d. 11. If in a balloon air is filled, it was observed that it denies Boyles rule P α 1/V because as air is filled both the Pressure and CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) 2 volume inside the balloon increases. The explanation for this is a. Air is not an real gas b. Boyles law is applicable at low temperatures only c. It is applicable at high temperatures only d. Boyles law is applicable at all temperatures 12. If an substrate changes from X to Y and finally to Z by an first order reaction. The rate constant of X􀃆Y is 0.2 sec-1 and Y􀃆Z is 200 sec-1. The overall rate of reaction from X􀃆Z will be a. 0.2 sec-1 b. 100 sec-1 c. 200sec-1 d. 400 sec-1 13. Considering the isothermal condition, what would be change in the atmospheric pressure at height 0 Km, 8 Km and 16 Km. a. No change b. 1, 0.5, 0 c. 1, 2,4 d. 1,0.8, 0.16 14. Venus is visible only during the morning or evening because a. It rotate very fast b. It has very elliptical path c. It is eclipsed by earth d. It revolving path is smaller as compare to earth 15. We are able to know about internal details of earth due to a. Picture from satellites b. Surface features c. Acoustic waves from earth quake d. from deep wells 16. Consider the equation for eclipse is as follows, the distance between point (2,0) will be 17. Equations X cos α -2y sin α=17 2x sin α + y cos α=100 will have real solution only when α is a. 0 b. All case c. 45 d 90 18. Z= x +i Y IZI=IXI + IYI 19. In transitive sets number of (a,b) (b,c) are (a,c) and also in R, then Transitive set for (3,4,7,9) will be a. R1=(3,4)(7,9)(9,4) 20. for f (x) is as follows The relationship is not obeyed at f(x) a. -3, 0, +3,+6 21. The direct flight cost between place A and D is 17. What would be the minimum flight cost between A and D by any route? a. 7 b. 9 c. 14 d. 17 22. Solution of equation will be 23. Peripheral devices are attached to computer to increase its basic functioning. Among the following which is not an peripheral device a. USB flash drive b. CPU c. Modem d. Printer 24. Floating number in computer has a. Indefinite range and indefinite precision b. Definite range and indefinite precision c. Definite range and definite precision d. Indefinite range and definite precision Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 3 23. A is an array A[1], A[2]….A[10] Program will print “Yes” if the array A is a. Is sorted in increasing order b. Is sorted in decreasing order c. Has first element repeated d. Has a element less then 10 26. First cell to be differentiated in developing embryo is a . Epithelial cells b. Rods c. RBC d. Nerve cells 27. In plant if the sequence 5’-GATGGCACGAT-3’ is transcribed, the corresponding m-RNA will be a. 5’-CUACCGUGCUA-3’ b. 5’-GAUGGCACGAU-3’ c. 5-AUGUCCAUC-3’ d. 5’-ATGTCCATC-3’ 28. which of the following vaccine does not provide lifetime protection a. Typhoid b. Tetanus c. Polio d. Small pox 29. The special roots termed as pneumatophores are visible at a. Mangroves b. Oceans c. Epiphytes d. Salt stress 30. Efficiency of ATP synthesis is 40 % and enthalpy of reaction ADP+iP􀃆ATP is 8 K cal. If an individual consumes 2000 K cal, then the net ATP production from it would be a. 40 B. 100 C. 250 D. 1000 31. Pearl oysters are obtained from the genus a. Oysteria b. Pinctada c. mytillus d. Pila 32. Temperature sensitive mutation are important in molecular biology because it helps in studing a. genes for heat stress b. genes for cold stress c. genes necessary for survival of cell d. genes required for development 33. In ecosystem the concept of entropy is used to explain a. Photosynthesis efficiency b. Energy flow in trophic level c. Population growth d. Competition 34. Rate of reaction for first order reaction for an radioisotope is 6.93X 10 -2 sec-1. What is half life of radioisotope a. 10 sec b. 100 sec c. 0 sec d. 1000 sec 35. Chlorinated hydrocarbons effects ecosystem by a. Biomagnifications b. Bioconcentration c. Bioaccumulation d. Bioremediation 36. Morphologically similar species when interbreed produce viable fertile offspring. They are considered as single species according to a. biological species concept b. evolutionary species concept c. Genetic species concept d. Morphospecies concept 37. Natural selection against extreme phenotype is termed as a. Directional selection b. Diversifying selection c. Disruptive selection d. Stabilizing selection CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) 4 38. At any OTU following dendrogram was obtained Here species 1, 2 and 6 represents a. Evolutionary relationship b. phylogenetic relationship c. Overall similarity d. genetic similarity 39. Extensive phyletic diversification of animals was observed in a. Devonian b. Silurian c. Cambrian d. Mesozoic 40.Which one of the following statement is not true for edge effect of two ecosystems a. Moving corridors are always harmful b. It has its distinct physical environment differing from both side c. It has different species composition as compare to both side d. It has high biodiversity 41. In habitat A pike cichlid fishes preferentially feeds on large adult guppies, so guppies mature later and is of small size while in habitat B killer fish feeds on small, juvenile guppies so here guppies mature early and are large size. What will be effect if experimentally guppies for habitat A are transferred to habitat B. a. No change would be seen b. Mature early but large size adults c. mature late but small size adults d. mature late but large size adults 42. if in a metabolic reaction at temperature 270C increase in enthalpy is 1000 J and decrease in entropy is 10 J. calculate the change in free energy a. 4000 b. 1270 c. 2000 d. 730 43. In a population frequency of A1 is 0.75 and A2 is 0.25. After one generation the phenotype frequency will be a. 0.5625; 0.375; 0.0625 b. 0.5625; 0.0625;0.375 c. 0.750; 0.250;0.350 d. 0.5625; 0.1525;0.0625 44. The curve shown below shows a relationship between a. Time (X) and Population density (Y) b. Body size (X) and generation time (Y) c. Area(X) and number of species (Y) d. Fish length(X) and fish body weight(Y) 45. Phenotype A has selective advantage over B , B has over C and C has over A. The condition is like “paper-scissor-rock”. Under such condition in nature a. All phenotype would be selected b. Only A and C would be selected c. A and B together selected d. only B would be selected 46.Among the following which organelle is involved in apoptosis a. Lysosome b. ER c. Golgi d. Mitochondria 47. Tiger is not found in wild at a. Punjab b. Rajasthan c. UP d. Arunchal Pradesh 48. Taxol, an anti-cancerous drug effects a. Inhibiting polymerization of tubulin b. Inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin c. Polymerization of actin d. Favoring depolymerizaton of tubulin Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 5 49. Distance between gene A and B is 10 cM. If the F1 genotype was test crossed then what is probability of obtaining genotypes a.90 b. 45 c. 10 d. 5 50. Aspirin delays senescence in cut parts of plant and keeps flower fresh for longer time. The effect of aspirin is a. by decreasing the synthesis of ethylene. b. by increasing the synthesis of absicicic acid c. by increasing the synthesis of cytokinins d. by increasing the synthesis of gibberlic acid 51. Gibberlic acid stimulates seed germination in monocots by activation of degradative enzymes by acting on a. endosperm b. Aleurone layer c. Embryo d. Cotyledons 52. Hemidesmosomes are structure found between a. Two adjacent plant cells b. two adjacent animal cells c. Between cell and extracellular matrix d. Within a bacteria 53. Lymphatic system are mainly involved in a. Innate immunity b. Acquired Immunity c. Phagocytosis d. Recycling lymph 54. A zygote formed by a fusion of one normal gamete and another gamete where one of the chromosomes did not segregated at Anaphase-II will lead into chromosomal aberrations known as a. Haploidy b. Diploidy c. Polyploidy d. Aneuploidy 55. The Fluid mosaic model of Plasma membrane given by Singer and Nicolson is applicable to a. only prokaryotic membrane b. Only eukaryotic membrane c. Both prokaryotic and Eukaryotic membranes d. Only to organelle membranes 56. During which phase of infection cycle, the DNA polymerase of T4 –Phage is expressed maximally a. Immediate early b. Early c. Late d. Middle 57. In a chemical reaction catalyzed by enzyme following the Michales-Menten equation what will be the concentration of substrate when the velocity of reaction is 90% of the maximum velocity a. 18 Km b. 9Km c. 5 Km d. 1Km 58.Which of the following is involved in intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water a. Urea b. CH4 c. CCl4 d. CHCl3 59. If the length of one helix in DNA is 34 A0. The type of DNA is a. A b. B c. C d. D 60.Which statement is NOT correct regarding the genetic code a. One Amino acid can have more then one codon b. In eukaryotes the start codon is AUG c. Genetic codes are not strictly universal d. Third base of anticodon in not necessary for specificity 61. In prokaryotes there is single multifunctional fatty acyl synthase sufficient for complete fatty acid synthesis where as in eukaryotes there are many different enzymes CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 6 involved in fatty acid synthesis. The probable explanation for this difference is a. fatty acid synthesis is more stringent in eukaryotes b. Synthesis of fatty acid is by different mechanism in eukaryotes as compare to prokaryotes c. For better regulation of fatty acid synthesis in eukaryotes d. Fatty acids of eukaryotes are different from the prokaryotes 62. Vitamin B complex is an essential for humans because a. It is obtained only from plant sources b. It is obtained only from animal sources c. It act as cofactor for various metabolic enzymes d. It is directly utilized in various metabolic reactions 63. In submerged roots of mangrove plants the recycling of NAD+ is carried out by a. Cellular oxidation b. Glycolysis c. Electron transport chain d. Fermentative metabolism 64. Electron acceptor in anaerobic conditions in prokaryotes is a. Glucose, fructose, maltose b. Fatty acids c. SO42-, NO32-, CO2 d. Antioxidants such as Vitamin K 65. The biggest disadvantage of sexual reproduction against the asexual reproduction is a. Only half of genetic material is passed to offspring from each parent b. Lot of energy and time is consumed in locating mate c. Atleast two individuals are required for sexual reproduction d. After fertilization in many cases zygote fails to develop 66. In test cross F1 progeny is crossed with a. Either of the parent b. Recessive parent c. Dominant parent d. Heterozygous parent 67. Polytene chromosome is generated due to a. Failure of DNA replication b. Repeated DNA replication without segregation chromosomes c. Pairing of homologous chromosomes d. Due to extensive transcription process 68. An bacterial operon contains three structural genes A,B and C in the same order. If polar mutation occurs in gene B, then the effect in protein would be observed in a. In all proteins A, B, and C b. Only in B and C c. Only in B d. Complete loss of all proteins 69. Among the following, which is Sex linked disorder a. Night blindness b. color blindness c. Cretinism d. Myxodema 70. Among the following which statement is not correct for X-linked recessive disorder a. Females with such disorders are unknown b. Males carrying the diseased allele are always diseased c. Females are diseased only when their mother is carrier and father is diseased d. Males always passes trait to all of his sons 71. c-Value measures a. haploid content of genome b. diploid genome content c. Polyhploid genome content d. Anueploid genome content CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 7 72. The most ancient mode of energy generating metabolic reactions are a. Photosynthesis b. Oxidation of Nitrate c. Reduction of sulphate d. Reduction of nitrate 73. Chemolithotroph obtain their carbon from CO2 and energy from a. Sunlight b. Water c. Inorganic compounds d. Organic compounds 74. Carrying capacity of a forest is 20 tones which increases 10 % of its biomass annually. For sustainable forestry how much trees can be harvested for timber so that it has minimum effect on forest and can be harvested annually a. 20 tones b. 10 tones c. 1 tones d. 0.5 tones 75. The characteristic of a population with low value of intrinsic growth (r = 0.2) is a. Later age at maturity and small clutch size b. Early age at maturity and small clutch size c. Late age at maturity and large clutch size d. Early age at maturity and large clutch size 76. The characteristic survivorship curve III is shown by a. fruit flies b. Pelagic fishes c. Birds d. Humans 77. Which statement is correct regarding arteries and veins a. Arteries has single valve while veins has two valves b. there is no difference c. Arteries carry deoxygenate blood and has thicker walls d. veins contain deoxygenated blood and has thinner walls 78. Which statement is true regarding spore and seed a. Spore always generate diploid organisms b. Spore always give rise to sporophyte generation while gamete fuses with another haploid cells to give rise to zygote c. Spore and gametes are identical d. Spore are immotile and gametes are always motile 79. Which is not considered as major threat to loss of species diversity a. Habitat destruction b. Overexploitation c. Alien invasion d. Pollution 80. The technique used for observing 3-D structures is a. Scanning electron microscopy b. Transmission electron microscopy c. Confocal microscopy d. UV microscopy 81. Pyrimidine dimmers formed due to UV rays can be repaired without removing any nucleotide by the repair mechanism known as a. Mismatch repair mechanism b. Photoactivation c. Base excision repair mechanism d. SOS repair mechanism 82. Pentadactylity is a dominant trait, yet many individuals having single dominant alleles does not show any sign of polydacylity. This is known as a. Incomplete penetrance b. Variable expressivity c. Co dominance d. Incomplete dominance 83. Which of the following graph explains the “All or none” response against stimulus (Answer D) CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 8 84. Among the following which is not an correct explanation for high biodiversity at tropical rain forests a. Long evolutionary time b. More surface area c. High productivity d. Minimum competition 85. Ribose-5-Phosphate is precursor for ribose sugar in DNA and RNA and is obtained from a. Pentose phosphate pathway b. Kreb cycle c. Glycolysis d. Aminoacids 86. First fossils were discovered a. Prior to both Lamarck and Darwin b. Prior to Lamarck but after Darwin c. After Lamarck but prior to Darwin d. After Lamarck and Darwin 87. Prebiotic environment was different from present enviorment and was devoid of a. CO2 b. atmosphere c. O2 d. N2 88. Type of biome in California and coastal regions of Mediterranean sea is a. Taiga b. Savanah c. Chaparrals d. Tropical deciduous forests 89. Biodiesal is obtained from a. Jatropa curcus b. Calotropis c. Prosopis d. Catharanthus 90. Homeotic genes are responsible for a. Development b. Homeostasis c. Cell cycle d. Gene regulation 91. An object of 1.5 m height is placed 8.5 m away from the human eye and image is formed on retina which is 1.7 cm away from the lens. The size of image will be a. 0.3 μm b. 3 mm c. 3 cm d. 3 m 92. The sign of cross between Spartina X townsendaii represents a. Cultivars b. Intergeneric hybridization c. Interspecific hybridization d. Grafts 93. The equation 1-Σ Pi2 represents a. Shannon weaver index b. Simposon index c. Bronaulli index d. Hills equation 94.Gram positive bacteria are further classified at generic and species level by analysis of a. DNA b. Cell wall c. Proteins d. Cell membranes 95. In E. coli the complementation test is done by a. Transformation b. Merozygotes c. heterokaryons d. Making them dipoid 96. Absisisic acid can be degraded by a. Oxidation and reduction b. reduction and conjugation c. Oxidatation and conjugation d. light and oxidation CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) Memory Based Paper CSIR NET DEC 2007 9 97. Honey bee keep variations among the workers by a. Matting with males many times b. Parthenogeneis b. Specialization of functional role d. Extensive recombination during oogenesis 98. Haematopoetic stem cells are found in a. Bone marrow b. Skin c. Lympoid organs d. Spleen 99. Among the following which is not an density independent factor effecting population a. Competition b. Food c. Temperature d. Nutrients 100. Under which condition of natural selection no allele would be lost a. any one homozygote is favored b. Both homozygote are favored c. Heterozygote are favored d. Heterozygote is not favored CSIR NET DEC 2007 Life sciences Developed by: IFAS, Jodhpur/Udaipur ) CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPER JUNE 2008 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, JODHPUR Contact: 0291-2721056 1 1. Among the following which process do not occur in nucleus 1. Replication 2. Transcription 3. Translation 4. Repair 2. Consider the following algorithm n > 0 f (n) If n=0 then return 0 Else 2 + f (n‐2) Consider the initial value of n=11, then the value returned after execution of program will be 1. 9 2. 11 3. 13 4. Program will no terminate 3. Consider the following table, where • = AND, + = OR,⎯X=NOT X and⎯Y=NOT Y X Y f (x,y) T T F F T F T F T F F T Value of f (x,y) will be 1. X.Y 2. X+Y 3. X.Y+⎯X.⎯Y 4. X.⎯Y+ X.⎯Y 4. Consider the equations; the second equation will be equal to 6 .... 1 41 31 21 1 2 2 2 2 2 + + + + =π n = − + + + + 2 2 2 (2 1)2 .... 1 71 51 31 1 n 1. 2 π 2. 12 π 2 3. 6 π 2 4. 1 2 2 n − π 5. Consider the following vein diagram for universal set U. The shaded area can be represented by 1. A ∩B∩C 2. A∩B∩Cc 3. A∩B 4. Ac∩Bc∩C 6. Consider a series is in certain geometrical progression with exact difference‘d’ between successive number. If series starts with 10 and consist 100 integers. Their sum can be represented by the equation 1. 100 (100+99d) 2. 100 (90+100d) 3. 20 (50+99d) 4. 50 (20+99d) 7. It is expected that around 2100 AD all ice in polar glaciers will melt and level of sea will increase as a consequence of global warming. What would be effect of it on rotation speed of earth? 1. Increase 2. Decrease 3. No change 4. Stop 8. If a bar magnet is allowed to fall through solenoid connected to the closed circuit. Its acceleration will be 1. Equal to g 2. Greater than g 2. Smaller than g 4. It will not fall 9. Mumbai and Chennai are more humid cities as compare to Delhi because they are 1. Near to tropics 2. Near to equator 3. Coastal cities 4. Lies in low pressure zone 10. If accelerated charged particles with similar velocity are allowed to pass through the magnetic field which is perpendicular to their direction. It was observed that all have same radius of curvature. Thus we can conclude that 1. They have same mass 2. Have same mass: charge ration 3. Mass is directly proportional to square of charge 4. Charge is directly proportional to square of mass 11. Electron microscopes have comparatively better resolution as compare to light microscope because 1. They are costly 2. Uses more lenses 3. Carried out in vacuum 4. Wavelength used is lesser then visible light 12.If a ball of mass “m” was dropped from certain height “h”. The distance covered by it after 2 sec will be (g=9.8 ms‐2) 1. 4.9m 2. 9.8 m 3. 19.6 m 4. 28 m 13. Elevation level altitude (ELA) for a glacier is constant height when deposition of ice at top is equal to melting of ice from its base. It is CSIR NET LIFESCIENCES PAPER JUNE 2008 INSTITUTE FOR ADVANCED STUDIES, JODHPUR Contact: 0291-2721056 2 estimated that height of Himalayan glaciers has reduced 500 m since ice age, considering that temperature change per km rise in height is 60 C. The global temperature during ice age as compare to present was 1. 60 higher 2. 30 higher 3. 60 lower 4. 30 lower 14. At present half life of C14 is 5730 years. Its half life 11460 year ago was 1. 5730 2. 11460 3. 2680 4. 1680 15. Among the following which graph correctly represent the growth rate in yeast considering that it bud once in life (1) 16. It is observed that tail of revolving comet is always directed away from sun. The probable reason is 1. Due to gravitational pull of Saturn and Jupiter 2. Due to repulsive force from sun 3. Due to high speed 4. Due to lesser evaporation at sunlit side 17. Consider the following statements, where, :=stands for implies to x:=x+y y:=x‐y x:=x‐y If x=2 and y=3, then out put (x,y) will be 1. 3,2 2. 1,1 3. 2,3 4. 5,3 18. The order of stability in given structures would be 1. i>ii>iii 2. iiii>i 4. i>iii>ii 19. The following curve represents 1. tan‐1 x 2. sin1 x 3. cos‐1 x 4. cosin‐1 x 20. Consider the following 4 X 4 matrix table 1. invertible if a=o 2. noninvertible if a=o 3. invertible if 0