SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 1 MODEL TEST PAPER I TIME: 4 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 The test us divided into four sections. Please follow the instructions given in each section carefully and answer the questions. SECTION – A: FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING (60 MARKS) (i) Questions 1 to 10 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (ii) Questions 11 to 20 are the fill in the blank based questions having four alternate answers and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (iii) Questions 21 and 22 contain small paragraph /table followed by a question having only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (iv) Questions 23 to 60 are numerical based questions, which have answers as numerical values and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. PART:1. 1. It is generally assumed that the business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future because of. (a) Periodicity, (b) Materiality, (c ) Matching, (d) Going concern. 2. Which of the following is correct? (a) Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities, (b) Assets is equal to liabilities minus capital, (c ) Liabilities is equal to capital plus assets, (d) Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities. 3. Double column cash book records (a) Only cash transactions, (b) All transactions, (c) Cash and bank transactions, (d) Cash purchase and cash sale transactions. 4. Errors of commission do not permit: (a) Correct totaling of the trial balance, (b) Correct totaling of the Balance sheet, (c ) Trial balance to agree, (d) None of the above. 5. All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is: (a)Wages account, (b) Debtors accounts, (c ) Bills payable account, (d) Goodwill. 6. The term depletion is used for (a) Fixed Assets (b) Natural resources, (c) Intangible assets, (d) None of the three. 7. A Bill of exchange requires (a) Noting (b) Registration (c) Acceptance (d) None of the above. 8. According to the provisions of Reserve Bank of India Act, a promissory note cannot be made payable to the: (a) Bank, (b) Endorser (c ) Bearer, (d) None of the above. 9. Rs. 5,000 spent to remove a worn out part and replace it with a new one is (a) Capital expenditure, (b) Revenue expenditure, (c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) None of the above. 10. Outstanding salary account is: (a) Real account (b) Personal account (c ) Nominal account (d) None of the above. 2 PART: II 11. Drawings are deducted from ________________ (a) Sales (b) Purchases, (c ) Expenses, (d) Capital. 12. The trail balance of Meghna shows the opening stock of Rs. 10,000, it will be ________________ (a) Debited to the trading account, (b) Credited to the trading account, (c ) Deducted from closing stock in the balance sheet, (d) Added to closing stock in the balance sheet. 13. Purchase returns appearing in the trial balance are deduced from __________________ (a) Sales returns, (b) Capital, (c ) Sales, (d) Purchases. 14. ____________ Will generally show a debit balance. (a) Bank Loan, (b) Bad debts recovered, (c ) Salary Payable, (d) Drawings. 15. Purchase of a fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ________________ (a) Cash Book, (b) Purchases Book, (c) Journal proper, (d) None of the above. 16. Accounting means recording of _________________ (a) Transactions, (b) Events, (c ) Both (a) and (b), (d) Neither (a) nor (b). 17. Unless given otherwise, the ratio of sacrifice is the same as _______________ (a) New profit sharing ratio, (b) Equal ratio, (c ) Old profit sharing ratio, (d) None of the above. 18. The ratio in which the continuing partners acquire the outgoing (Retired or deceased) partner’s share is called _____________ (a) Sacrificing ratio, (b) Gaining ratio, (c ) New Profit sharing ratio, (d) Old profit sharing ratio. 19. A Bill of exchange is called a __________ by one who is liable to pay it on the due date. (a) Bill receivable, (b) Noted bill of exchange, (c ) Bill payable, (d) None of the above. 20. The amount of calls in arrear is deducted from ___________ to arrive at ______________ (a) Issued capital, called up capital, (b) Called up capital, issued capital, (c ) Paid up capital, called up capital, (d) Called up capital, paid up capital. PART: III. 21. Smita places an order to Priya for supply of certain goods yet to be manufactured. On receipt of order, Priya purchases raw materials, employs workers, produces the goods and delivers them to Smita. In this case, sale will be presumed to have been made at the time of. (a) Receipt of order, (b) Production of goods, (c) Delivery of goods, (d) Purchase of raw material. 22. If a machinery is purchased for Ra. 1,00,000, the asset would be recorded in the books at Rs.1,00,000 even if its market value at that time happens to be Rs. 1,40,000. In case a year after, the market value of this asset comes down to Rs. 90,000, it will ordinarily continue to be shown at Rs. 1,00,000 and not at Rs. 90,000 due to. (a) Realization concept, (b) Present value concept, (c) Replacement concept, (d) Cost concept. PART: IV. 23. Mr. Shyam deposited a cheque on 28th March, 2006 for a sum of Rs. 10,000. The cheque was collected on 4th April, 2006. If the Bank balance as per cash book on 31st March, 2006 is Rs. 1,00,000, balance as per pass book will be: (a) Rs. 1,10,000 (b) Rs. 90,000 (c ) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) None of the above. 24. If cost of goods sold is Rs. 100,000, sales is Rs. 1,25,000, closing stock is Rs. 20,000, the gross profit will be (a) Rs. 45,000, (b) Rs. 5,000, (c) Rs. 25,000 (d) None of the three. 25. X enters into a joint venture with Y. The goods were purchased by X and Y amounting Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 40,000 respectively. Y incurred the expenses of Rs. 5,000 and received cash of Rs.1,000. Goods were sold by X and Y amounting Rs. 22,000 and Rs. 39,000. Goods unsold were taken over by Y for Rs. 2,000. The profit or loss on joint venture is. (a) Profit of Rs. 2,000, (b) Loss of Rs. 2,000 (c ) Profit of Rs. 1,000, (d) Loss of Rs. 1,000. SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 3 26. On 1st January, 2006, Mohan draws upon Sohan a bill of exchange at three months of Rs. 2,000 for mutual accommodation. On 4th January, 2006 Mohan discounts the bill @6% per annum and sends half of the (a) Rs. 1,000 (b) Rs. 970 (c ) Rs. 985, (d) Rs. 2,000. 27. ABC Ltd. Sells goods to its approved customers on sale or return basis at a profit of 20% on sales, treating as actual sales. On 26th March, 2006 goods costing Rs. 10,000 were sent to Annu Ltd. No confirmation has been received from Annu Ltd. Till 31st March, 2006. The amount of stock with customers to be shown as closing stock in the balance sheet of ABC Ltd. As on 31st March, 2006 will be. (a) Rs. 12,500 (b) Rs. 8,000 (c ) Rs. 10,000 (d) NIL 28. Somesh and Ramesh are equal partners. Their capitals are Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively. The accounts of the year were closed before providing interest @5% per annum as per partnership agreement. To rectify this mistake they decided to pass an adjustment entry between the partners. Therefore, Somesh account need to be debited by. (a) Rs. 2,000 (b) NIL (c ) Rs. 1,000 (d) None of the above. 29. A, B and C are paertners in the ratio of 3:2:1. D is admitted in the firm for 1/6th share in profits. C would retain his original share. The new profit sharing ratio between A, B C and D will be. (a) 12:8:5:5 (b) 8:12:5:5 (c ) 5:5:12:8 (d) 5:5:8:12. 30. Menu and Renu are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3 with capitals of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000. The partnership deals provides for interest on capital @6% per annum. Trading profits of the firm for the year ended 31st March, 2006 are Rs. 1,500. The amount of profit or loss apportioned between Menu and Renu are (a) Loss of Rs. 300 (b) No Profit no loss, (c ) Profit of Rs. 1,000 (d) Profit of Rs. 1,500. 31. A firm earns profit of Rs. 1,10,000. The normal rate of return ina similar type of business is 10%. The value of total assets (excluding goodwill) and total outside liabilities are Rs. 11,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 respectively. The value of goodwill is (a) Rs. 1,00,000 (b) Rs. 10,00,000 (c ) NIL (d) None of the above. 32. The cost of stock as per physical verification of Bharat Ltd. On 10th April, 2006 was Rs. 1,20,000. The following transactions took place between 1st April, 2006 to 10th April, 2006: Cost of goods sold Rs. 10,000 Cost of goods purchased Rs. 10,000 Purchase returns Rs. 1,000 The value of inventory as per books on 31st March, 2006 will be (a) Rs. 1,19,000, (b) Rs. 1,11,000, (c ) Rs. 1,21,000 (d) Rs. 1,20,000. 33. The following data has been provided by Omega Ltd: Item No. Units Cost per unit Realization value per unit 1 2 10 11 2 10 5 4 3 2 2 2 The value of inventory on item by item basis will be: (a) Rs. 40, (b) Rs. 64, (c) Rs. 66, (d) Rs. 60. 34. Sushila’s business disclosed the following profits for the last three years: 2003: Rs. 40,000 (Including an abnormal gain of Rs. 5,000) 2004: Rs. 50,000 (After charging an abnormal loss of Rs. 10,000) The value of goodwill on the basis of one year purchase of the average profit of last two years is: (a) Rs. 45,000 (b) Rs. 37,500 (c ) Rs. 47,500 (d) None of the three. 35. Ram sells goods for Rs. 1,00,000 to Hari on 1st January, 2006 and on the same day draws a bill on Hari at three months for the amount. Hari accepts it and return it to Ram, who discounts it on 4th January, 2006 with his bank at 12% per annum. The discounting charges are: (a) Rs. 12,000 (b) Rs. 4,000 (c) Rs. 3,000 (d) NIL 4 36. Nidhi started her business with capital of Rs. 45,000 on 1st January, 2006. Interest on drawings Rs. 5,000 and interest on capital Rs. 2,000 were appearing in the Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31st December, 2006. Nidhi withdrew Rs. 14,000 during the year and profit earned during the year amounted to Rs. 15,000. Her capital on 31st December, 2006 is. (a) Rs. 67,000 (b) Rs. 47,000, (c ) Rs. 45,000 (d) 43,000. 37. The accountant of M/s ABC and Bros. Paid personal income tax for the proprietor amounting Rs. 10,000. This income tax should be. (a) To be added to capital, (b) To be credited to Profit & Loss Account, (c ) To be debited to Trading Account. (d) To be deducted from capital. 38. Suresh’s Trial balance provides you the following information: Bad debts Rs. 10,000 Provision for doubtful debts Rs. 15,000 Suresh wants to make a provision of Rs. 20,000 at the end of the year. The amount debited to the Profit & Loss Account is: (a) Rs. 45,000 (b) Rs. 5,000 (c ) Rs. 15,000 (d) None of the above. 39. Following are the extracts from the Trial Balance of a firm as at 31st March, 2006: Name of Account Debit Balance Credit Balance Salaries Rs. 16,000 P.F. Deducted from Salaries Rs. 1,000 Provide for employer’s share of P.F. equivalent to employee’s share to P.F. The amount at which salaries expense will be shown in the Profit and Loss A/c is (a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 17,000 (c ) Rs. 16,000 (d) None of the above. 40. Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for Rs. 50,000 and spent Rs. 6,000 on its erection. On the date of purchase it was estimated that the effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be Rs. 6,000. The amount of depreciation for each year on straight line basis is (a) Rs. 5,000 (b) Rs. 5,600 (c ) Rs. 6,000 (d) None of the above. 41. Xeta Ltd. Was formed as a Public Limited Company with an authorized capital of Rs. 20,00,000 divided into shares of Rs. 10 each. Xeta Ltd. Issued fully paid up shares of Rs. 10/-each in consideration of acquiring assets worth Rs. 3,80,000 from M/s Rahim Bros. The shares are issued at a premium of 20%. To record this transaction, share capital need to be credited by (a) Rs. 3,80,000 (b) Rs. 76,000, (c ) Rs. 2,00,000 (d) Rs. 3,04,000 42. Mr. Rajiv was the holder of 200 shares of Rs.10 each in RPG Ltd. Upon which Rs. 5 per share had been called up but he had paid only Rs. 2.5 per share thereon. The Company forfeited his shares and afterwards sold them to Satbir, credited as Rs. 5 per share paid for Rs. 900. The amount to be transferred to capital reserve is: (a) Rs.300 (b) Rs. 500 (c ) Rs. 400 (d) None of the above. 43. A Ltd. Company forfeited 1000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each, issued at a discount of 10%, for non – payment of first call of Rs. 2 and second call of Rs. 3 per share. For recording this forfeiture, calls in arrear account will be credited by: (a) Rs. 4,000, (b) Rs. 1,000 (c ) Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 10,000. 44. A fire broke out on 30th March, 2006 in the godown f Mahesh stock of invoice value Rs. 1,600 was destroyed. The goods are invoiced at 25% above cost. The insurance company admitted claim of 50% only. The insurance claim will be: (a) Rs. 640, (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800. (d) None of the above. 45. Salary has been paid for 11 months from April 2005 to February, 2006 amounting Rs. 22,000. The amount of outstanding salary shown in the balance sheet will be: (a) Rs. 1833, (b) Rs. 2,000 (c) Rs. 1,000 (d) None of the above. 46. On 1st April, 2005 Raghu invested capital of Rs. 2,00,000. He withdrew Rs. 50,000 during the year. Interest on drawings is provided @10% per annum. The amount of interest on drawings deducted from capital is: (a) Rs. 5,000 (b) Rs. 15,000 (c) Rs. 2,500 (d) Rs. 7,500 47. The Bank Account of Mukesh was balanced on 31st March, 2006. It showed an overdraft of Rs.50,000. It was observed that one cheque amounting Rs. 20,000 deposited but not collected by bank till 31st March. Bank charges of Rs. 500 were SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 5 also charged by the bank during March but accounted in the book of Mukesh on April 4, 2006. The bank statement of Mukesh shows balance of: (a) Rs. 70,500 (b) Rs. 69,500 (c ) Rs.70,000 (d) Rs. 50,000. 48. Rs. 5,000 was spent by Mrs. Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the production capacity. The amount is: (a) Revenue in nature, (b) Deferred revenue in nature (c) Capital in nature, (d) Liability in nature. 49. Mr. Prakash sells goods at 20% above cost. His sales were Rs. 10,20,000 during the year. However, he sold damaged goods for Rs. 20,000 costing Rs. 30,000. This sale is included in Rs. 10,20,000. The amount of gross profit is: (a) Rs. 1,90,000 (b) Rs. 2,50,000 (c) Rs. 2,40,000 (d) Rs. 2,00,000. 50. The total of the debit and credit side of Mr. Rajiv as on 31st March, 2006 were Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively. The difference was transferred to suspense account. On 4th April, 2006, it was found that the total of purchase returns book was carry forward as Rs. 1,500 instead of Rs. 1,400. The balance of the suspense account after the rectification of this error will be: (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 9,900, (c ) Rs. 11,500, (d) Rs. 10,100. 51. Capital introduced by Mr. A on 1/4/2006 Rs. 3,00,000; further capital introduced during the year was Rs. 50,000 in the mid of the year. Mr. A withdrew Rs. 2,000 per month and the profit earned during the year was Rs. 20,000. Capital as on 31/3/2006 was. (a) Rs. 3,94,000, (b) Rs. 3,46,000, (c) Rs. 2,94,000, (d) None of the three. 52. Goods costing Rs. 10,000 sent out to consignee at Cost + 25%. Invoice value of the goods will be. (a) Rs. 12,500, (b) Rs. 12,000, (c ) Rs. 10,000, (d) None of the above. 53. A, B and C are the partners sharing profits in the ratio 1:1:2. C died on 30th June 2006 and profits for the accounting year ended on 31st December, 2006 were Rs. 24,000. How much share in profits for the period 1st January, 2006 to 30th June, 2006 will be credited to C’s Account. (a) Rs. 12,000 (b) Rs. 6,000 (c ) NIL, (d) Rs. 3,000. 54. A purchased a car for Rs. 5,00,000 making a down payment of Rs. 1,00,000 and signing a bill payable of Rs. 4,00,000. As a result of this transaction. (a) Assets will increase by Rs. 5,00,000, (b) Liabilities will increase by Rs. 4,00,000, (c ) Assets will increase by Rs. 4,00,000. (d) Both (a) and (b). 55. Rekha purchased a machinery for Rs. 50,000 on 1/4/2006. She paid electricity and salary amounting Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 2,000 respectively. Telephone bill amounting Rs. 200 was outstanding on 31/3/2006. The amount of expenses for the year ended 31st March, 2006 will be. (a) Rs. 53,200, (b) Rs. 3,000, (c ) Rs. 53,000 (d) Rs. 3,200. 56. Goods costing Rs. 10,000 is supplied to Ram at an invoice price of 10% above cost and a trade discount of 5%. The amount of sales is (a) Rs. 11,000, (b) Rs. 10,450, (c ) Rs. 10,500, (d) None of the above. 57. Gauri paid Rs. 1,000 towards a debt of Rs. 1,050, which was written off as bad debt in the previous year. Gauri’s account should be credited with (a) 1,000 (b) 1,050, (c ) NIL (d) None of the three. 58. Ramesh, an employee of salary Rs.10,000 per month withdrew goods worth Rs. 1,500 for personal use and got salary of Rs. 9,000 in cash in the month of March, 2006. The excess payent of Rs. 500 should be debited to (a) Salaries account (b) Goods account, (c) Drawing account, (d) Salaries paid in advance account. 59. An old furniture was purchased for Rs. 10,000, it was repaired for Rs. 100. The repairs account should be debited by (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 10,100 (c ) Rs. 100 (d) NIL 60. Rs. 1,000 paid as rent to Krishna, the landlord, was debited to Krishan’s personal account. This error will. (a) Affect the trial balance, (b) Not affect the trial balance, (c) Affect the suspense account (d) None of the three. 6 SECTION – B : MERCANTILE LAWS ( 40 MARKS) (i) Questions 61 to 79 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (ii) Questions 80 to 98 are the fill in the blank based questions having four alternate answers and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (iii) Questions 99 and 100 contain small paragraph /Table followed by a question having only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer: PART: 1. 61. A wager means: (a) A promise to give money or money’s worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain future event. (b) A promise to give money or money’s worth upon the determination or ascertainment of a certain future event. (c ) A promise to give money or money’s worth upon the happening of future event the outcome if which is pre determined. (d) A promise to give money or money’s worth upon the non – happening of certain future events the outcome if which is pre determined. 62. Following conditions are implied in a contract of sale of goods unless the circumstances of the contract show a different intention:-(a) Condition as to wholesomeness, (b) Sale by description as well as by sample, (c ) Condition as to quality or fitness, (d) All of the above. 63. Jus in personam means: (a) A right against or in respect of a thing, (b) A right against or in respect of a person, (c ) Both (a) and (b). (d) None of the above. 64. Which of the following is not correct: (a) Partner of firm cannot enter into a contract with the partnership firm, (b) A member of a company can enter into a contract with the company, (c ) Partner of a firm can enter into a contract with the partnership firm, (d) All of the above. 65. Relations of partners to one another is dealt is governed by the following Section of The Indian Partnership Act, 1932. (a) 1 – 8, (b) 9 – 17, (c ) 18 – 27, (d) 28 – 36. 66. Delivery of goods in case of transit made by handing over documents of title to goods is (a) Actual Delivery, (b) Constructive Delivery, (c) Symbolic Delivery, (d) All of the above. 67. Contracts may be classified on the basis of their validity, formation or performance. Contracts classified on the basis of performance are of the following types: (a) Executed Contracts, (b) Executory Contracts, (c) Partly Executed or Partly Executory Contracts, (d) All of the above. 68. A share certificate: (a) Allows the person named therein to transfer the share mentioned therein by mere endorsement on the back of the certificate. (b) Allows the person named therein to transfer the share mentioned therein by mere delivery of the certificate. (c ) Allows the person named therein to transfer the share mentioned therein by mere endorsement on the back of the certificate and the delivery of the certificate, (d) None of the above. 69. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third parties is: (a) Principal, (b) Agent, (c) Servant, (d) Bailee. 70. Coercion involves: (a) Physical Force or Threat, (b) Mental Pressure, (c) Both (a) and (b). (d) None of the Above. 71. Implied authority of the partner does not empower him to (a) Submit a dispute relating to the business of the firm to arbitration, (b) Withdraw a suit or proceedings filed on behalf of the firm, (c ) Both (a) & (b) : (d) None of the above. SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 7 72. A proposal may e revoked in the following ways: (a) By notice of revocation, (b) By lapse of time, (c ) By death or insanity, (d) All of the above. 73. Which of the following is correct? (a) Recission must be communicated to the other party in the same manner as a proposal is communicated. (b) Recission must be revoked in the same manner as a proposal is communicated. (c ) Communication of recission is optional, (d) Both (a) & (b). 74. Which of the following statement is /are correct? (a) The General rule is “unless otherwise agreed, the goods remain at the seller’s risk until the property therein is transferred to the buyer, but when the property therein is transferred to the buyer, the goods are at the buyer’s risk whether delivery has been made or not”. (b) Where the delivery of the goods has been delayed through the fault of either the buyer or the seller, the goods are at the risk of the party in fault as regards any loss which might not have occurred but for such fault. ( c) In ordinary circumstances, risk is borne by the buyer only when the property in the goods passes over to him. However, the parties may by special agreement stipulate that risk will pass sometime after or before the property has passed. (d) All of the above. 75. A fraudulently informs B that A’s estate is free from incumbrance. B thereupon buys the estate. The estate is subject to mortgage. Now (a) B may avoid the contract, (b) B may insist upon its performance, (c ) B may get the mortgage debt redeemed. (d) All of the above. 76. Dissolution of a firm may take place in the following manner: (a) Compulsory dissolution, (b) Dissolution by agreement, (c) By intervention of the court, (d) All of the above. 77. Dissolution by agreement is: (a) Dissolution by the adjudication of all the partners or of all the partners but one as insolvent, (b) Dissolution as a result of any agreement between all the partners, (c ) Dissolution by the business of the firm becoming unlawful. (d) All of the above. 78. Misrepresentation means and includes: (a) The positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true, (b) Any breach of duty, which, without an intention to deceive, gains an advantage to the person committing it, or any one claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice or to the prejudice of any one claiming under him. (c ) Causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement. (d) All of the above. 79. A person may be admitted as a new partner:-(a) In accordance with a contract between the existing partners or with the consent of all the existing partners. (b) In accordance with a contract between the existing partners or with the consent of all the existing partners subject to the provisions of Section 30 of the Act. (c ) After obtaining specific approval of the Registrar of Firms & Societies, to this effect. (d) By simply taking the consent of the new partner. 8 PART: II 80. The Doctrine of Privity of Contract states that ______________ (a) A contract cannot confer any right on one who is not a party to the contract, even though the very object of the contract may have been to benefit him. (b) A contract can confer right on one who is not a party to the contract, if the contract benefits him. (c ) A contract always confers right on one who is not a party to the contract. (d) A contract can confer rights on strangers. 81. A proposes by letter, to sell a house to B at a certain price. A revokes his proposal by telegram. The revocation is complete as against B when _____________ (a) A writes the telegram but the same has not been sent to B (b) A dispatches the telegram (c ) B receives the telegram (d) B responds to the telegram. 82. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 came into operation on and from ______________ (a) 1st October, 1872 (b) 1st July, 1872 (c ) 15th August, 1872 (d) 1st September, 1872. 83. In case of a contract of guarantee _______________ (a) There is only one contract (b) There are two contracts (c) There are three contracts, (d) There are actually only agreements and no contracts. 84. In case of a sale the risk of loss resulting from the insolvency of the buyer is borne by _______ (a) The seller, (b) The buyer (c ) Both of the above (d) General Insurance Company of India. 85. Agreement to sale is an ___________ (a) Executed Contract (b) Executory contract (c ) Both of the above (d) None of the above. 86. Suit for specific performance & Suit for injunction __________ (a) Are remedies which provide the same result, (b) Are different remedies and they provide different results, (c) Are not the correct way to act against the party committing the breach (d) Are the only correct way to act against the party committing the breach. 87. Contracting parties may not remain same in _______ (a) Remission (b) Recission (c ) Novation (d) Alteration 88. The liabilities of a minor when admitted to the benefits of the partnership _________ (a) Is confined to his share of the profits and property in the firm, (b) Is same as that of any other partner in the firm (c) Is similar as that of any other partner in the firm (d) Is unlimited. 89. Recission means _____________ (a) Substituting a new contract for the old one (b) Cancellation of the old contract (c) Modifying or altering the terms of contract such that it has the effect of substituting a new contract for the old one (d) Dispensing away the performance of the promise made by the other party. 90. Registration of a partnership firm is ________ (a) Compulsory from the beginning (b) Not compulsory till first five years of beginning of the partnership (c ) Not compulsory at all (d) Compulsory only if the Registrar of Firms, gives an order in this regard. 91. A Person to whom money has been paid, or anything delivered by mistake ___________ (a) Becomes the owner of such money or those goods (b) Must repay the money or return those goods (c) Is allowed to sell the goods and retain the money realized from such sale (d) Has no obligation to return the money, he may do so only a good gesture 92. Delivery by attornment is _____________ (a) Actual Delivery, (b) Constructive Delivery (c ) Symbolic Delivery (d) Physical Delivery. 93. In case of an agreement to sell, the aggrieved party ___________ (a) Can sue for price, (b) Can sue for damages (c ) Can sue the buyer for injunction (d) None of the above. SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 9 94. Return of goods is possible in case of ___________ (a) Sale (b) Bailment (c ) Exchange (d) None of the above. 95. ‘Buyer’ means a person who ____________ (a) Buys goods (b) Agrees to buy goods (c ) Has bought goods (d) Buys or agrees to buy goods. 96. The appropriation must be made by ______________ (a) The seller with the assent of the buyer, (b) The buyer with the assent of the seller (c ) The buyer or the seller with or without the assent of the other (d) Both (a) & (b) 97. Partner by holding out is also known as ________________ (a) Active Partner (b) Dormant Partner (c ) Partner by estoppel (d) Partner by stoppage. 98. Interest on capital subscribed by a partner may be provided for in the partnership deed is _________ (a) @6% per annum, provided it is payable only out of profits, (b) @8% per annum, provided it is payable only out of profits, (c ) @8.5% per annum, provided it is payable only out of profits, (d) At any rate, provided it is payable only out of profits. PART – III 99. A had offered B, a price of Rs. 10,00,000/-for B’s flat. But B was not ready to sell the flat at all. A says to B that “I shall kill you if you don’t agree to sell me your house of Rs. 10,00,000/-“. B thereafter did all that was the desire of A in order to save his life. What is immediate answer? (a) A can enforce the contract, (b) B can enforce the contract, (c ) A has applied coercion, (d) The contract is unenforceable. 100. A had offered B, a price of Rs. 10,00,000/-for B’s flat. But B was not ready to sell the flat at all. A says to B that “I shall kill you if you don’t agree to sell me your house for Rs. 10,00,000/-“. B thereafter did all that was the desire of A in order to save his life. Choose the most suitable statement for the purpose of finding out remedy for B. (a) A has applied coercion, (b) A has done fraud with B, (c) A is guilty of misbehaving with B. (d) A has an anti – social nature. 10 SECTION – C: GENERAL ECONOMICS ( 50 MARKS ) (i) Questions 101 to 116 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (ii) Questions 117 to 132 are Fill in the blanks type and carry + 1 mark for each correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (iii) Questions 133 to 137 contain small paragraph /table followed by a question having only one correct answer and carries + 1 mark each for correct answer and -0.25 mar for each wrong answer. (iv) Question 138 to 150 are numerical based which have answers as numerical value and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. PART: I 101. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) In a two – good economy, the production possibilities frontier reflects the maximum amount of one good that can be produced when a given amount of the other good is produced. (b) Microeconomics is the study of the behaviour of the economy as a whole. (c ) Positive economics focuses on welfare of the people of a society, (d) None of the above. 102. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) The cross elasticity of demand for two substitutes is positive, (b) The income elasticity of demand is the percentage change in quantity demanded of a good due to a change in the price of a substitute. (c ) The income elasticity of demand is the percentage change in quantity demanded of a good due to a change in the price of a substitute. (d) The price elasticity of demand is always negative, except for giffen goods. 103. Which of the following situation does not lead to an increase in equilibrium price? (a) An increase in demand, without a change in supply, (b) A decrease in supply accompanied by an increase in demand, (c ) A decrease in supply without a change in demand, (d) An increase in supply accompanied by a decrease in demand. 104. “I am making a loss, but with the rent I have to pay, I can’t afford to shut down at this point of time”. If this entrepreneur is attempting to maximize profits or minimize losses, his hehaviour in the short run is: (a) Rational, if the firm is covering its variable cost, (b) Rational, if the firm is covering its fixed costs, (c ) Irrational, since plant closing is necessary to eliminate losses, (d) Irrational, since fixed costs are eliminated if a firm shuts down. 105. An individual firm in a perfectly competitive market faces a demand curve which is: (a) Downward sloping, (b) Relatively inelastic, (c) Perfectly elastic, (d) Upward sloping. 106. A firm’s production function: (a) Shows how much output and the level of input required for the firm to maximize profits. (b) Establishes the minimum level of output that can be produced using the available resources. (c ) Shows the maximum output that can be produced with a given amount of inputs with available technology. (d) Shows labour force which is employed. 107. The law of diminishing returns: (a) States that beyond some level of a variable input, the average product of that variable input begins to increase steadily. (b) Assumes that there is technological improvement over time, (c ) States that beyond some level of a variable input, the marginal product of that variable begins to decrease steadily. (d) Informs a firm whether or not to use a factor input. 108. Which of the following is correct? (a) If marginal revenue is positive and falling, total revenue will rise at a decreasing rate. (b) Total revenue is equal to price times the quantity sold, (c ) Under perfect competition, total revenue is equal to marginal revenue times the quantity sold. (d) All of the above. SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 11 109. You are given the following data: TABLE -1 Output Total Costs 0 0 1 15 2 35 3 60 4 92 5 140 The above data is an example of: (a) Decreasing returns to scale, (b) Constant returns to scale (c ) Increasing returns to scale, (d) Positive fixed costs. 110. Monopolies are allocatively inefficient because: (a) They restrict the output to keep the price higher than under perfect competition, (b) They charge a price higher than the marginal cost, (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct, (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect. 111. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Countries which are industrially well – developed generally have higher per capital income than countries which are not. (b) India is a capital surplus economy, (c ) Agriculture sector need not depend upon industrial sector for its growth. (d) None of the above. 112. EAS stands for (a) Easy Assistance scheme, (b) Endless Assistance scheme, (c ) Employment Assurance Scheme, (d) Employment Assessment scheme. 113. The effect of increase CRR will be reduced or nullified if: (a) Bank rate is reduced, (b) Securities are sold in the open market (c) SLR is increased, (d) People do not borrow from non – banking institutions. 114. Privatization in India has taken place in all of the cases except. (a) CMC (b) BALCO (c ) VSNL (d) None of the above. 115. What percent of the sick units in India are big units? (a) 10 percent (b) 2 percent (c ) 30 percent (d) 98 percent. 116. Which among the following is an indirect tax? (a) Income tax (b) Wealth tax (c ) Custom duty (d) Gift tax. PART: II. 117. At the time of Independence and a number of years thereafter cotton textiles, jute and tea accounted for more than ________ % of our export earnings. (a) 50 (b) 70 (c ) 80 (d) 90 118. According to the latest available data, the bad – population ratio in India is ________ per thousand population. (a) 3.2 (b) 9.5 (c ) 11.5 (d) 20.3 119. According to the latest UNDP report, 2005 India’s relative global rating on this index is _______ among 177 countries. (a) 150 (b) 177 (c ) 127 (d) 5 120. According to the latest NSSO (2004) data, the percentage of people living below poverty line has _________ compared to the previous (1999) data. (a) Increased (b) Remained same (c ) Decreased (d) Cant’s say. 121. According to the Tenth Plan estimates, around ______ million persons years were unemployed in 2001 – 02. (a) 40.72 (b) 12.12 (c ) 45.12 (d) 34.85 12 122. As compared to the targeted growth rate of 8.2% per annum in industrial production, the actual growth rate was ________ % per annum during the Ninth Plan. (a) 9.4 (b) 5.2 (c ) 6.5 (d) 7.5 123. The value added by the industrial sector in the GDP ( 2004) is __________ (a) 26%, (b) 12%, (c ) 19% (d) 32%. 124. The small scale sector in India employs nearly _________ lakh people. (a) 67 (b) 23 (c ) 100 (d) 283 125. GDP at factor cost is equal to GDP at market price minus indirect taxes plus ____________ (a) Depreciation (b) Direct taxes (c ) Foreign investments (d) Subsidies 126. Net domestic expenditure is consumption expenditure plus ___________ (a) Net foreign investment (b) Net foreign investment plus net domestic investment (c ) Net domestic investment (d) Replacement expenditure. 127. Custom duties are levied on ____________ (a) Income of the individual (b) Production of goods (c ) Export and import of goods (d) Incomes of the corporate. 128. Demand for final consumption arises in ___________ (a) House hold sector only (b) Government sector only (c) Both household and government sectors (d) Neither household nor government sector. 129. The share of direct taxes in the gross tax revenue (Center and States combined) was _______ % in 2005 – 06. (a) 66 (b) 34 (c ) 25 (d) 75 130. According to census 2001 the sex ratio (Number of females per 1000 males ) in India is _________ (a) 933 (b) 941 (c ) 927 (d) 930 131. If cinema halls are making losses they should lower the ticket fares. The suggested remedy would only work if the demand for watching movies in cinema halls had a price elasticity of ______________ . (a) Zero (b) Greater than zero but less than one, (c) One (d) Greater than one. 132. The Tenth Plan aims to reduce poverty ratio to ___________ % by 2007. (a) 12.3 (b) 19.3 (c) 14.3 (d) 18.3. PART III. Questions 133 to 137 are based on the demand and supply diagrams in Figure 1. S1 and D1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change? Figure 1 P 2 S3 S1 3 5 S2 1 7 4 8 6 9 D2 D1 D3 Q 133. If Figure 1 represents the market for Mars Bars, the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if there is an increase in cocoa prices will be: SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 13 (a) Point 3 (b) Point 9 (c ) Point 4 (d) Point 2. 134. In Figure 1 (which represents the market for Mars Bars), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if there is rapid economic growth and the government also imposes a tax on mars bars is : (a) Point 3, (b) Point 9, (c ) Point 2, (d) Point 6. 135. In Figure 1 (Which represents the market for Mars Bars), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if thee is a health scare about the effect mars bars may have is : (a) Point 2, (b) Point 9, (c ) Point 3, (d) Point 6. 136. In Figure 1 (Which represents the market for Mars Bars), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. Assuming that mars bars are an inferior good, the new equilibrium if there is a recession and wages of workers producing them fall is: (a) Point 2, (b) Point 7, (c ) Point 3, (d) Point 6. 137. In Figure 1 (Which represents the market for Mars Bars), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. Assume that the price of sugar falls and at the same time there is a technological advancement in the production of mars bars. The new equilibrium will be: (a) Point 2, (b) Point 7, (c ) Point 3, (d) Point 6. PART – IV 138. A Book seller estimates that if she increases the price of a book from Rs. 60 to Rs. 67, the quantity of books demanded will decrease from 2 035 to 1 946. The book’s price elasticity of demand is approximately. (a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c ) 1.0 (d) 2.5 139. Concerned about the poor state of the economy, a car dealer estimates that if income decreases by 4 per cent, car sales will fall from 352 to 335. Consequently, the income elasticity of demand for cars is approximately. (a) – 1.2 (b) 0.01 (c ) 0.4 (d) 1.2 A Competitive firm sells as much as of its product as it chooses at a market price of Rs.200 per unit. Its fixed cost is Rs. 600 and its variable costs ( in rupees) for different levels of production are shown in the following table. Use Table 2 to answer questions 140 – 144. Table -2 Quantity Variable Cost Fixed Cost Total Cost Average Variable Cost Average Total Cost Marginal Cost 0 0 ---------5 500 10 940 15 1400 20 1960 25 2700 30 3700 35 5040 40 6800 45 9060 50 11900 140. When production is 40 units, the average total cost is (a) Rs. 8.80 (b) Rs. 15 (c ) Rs. 170 (d) Rs. 185 141. In the table marginal cost per unit that corresponds to 40 units of production is (a) Rs. 44, (b) Rs. 170 (c) Rs. 352 (d) Rs. 1760 142. To maximize profit, the firm should produce (a) 15 Units (b) 30 Units (c ) 35 Units (d) 50 Units 143. If the market price drops from Rs. 200 to Rs. 112, the firm’s short run response should be (a) Shut down (b) Produce 5 units (c) Produce 20 Units 14 (d) Continue to produce the same number of units as before the drop in price. 144. If the market price rises from Rs. 200 to Rs. 352, the firm’s short run response should be (a) Shut down (b) Produce 40 Units (c) Produce 20 Units (d) Continue to produce the same number of units as before the increase in price. 145. Suppose a shopkeeper buys inputs worth Rs. 2,00,000 and his sales are worth Rs. 4,00,000 in a month. The input tax rate is 4% and output tax rate is 10%. What is Value added tax here after set off of input tax credit? (a) Rs. 32,000 (b) Rs. 8,000 (c ) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 20,000 146. If the quantity of blankets demanded increases from 4600 to 5700 in response to a decrease in their price from Rs. 220 to Rs. 190, the price elasticity of demand for blankets is. (a) 0.69 (b) 1.0 (c ) 1.46 (d) 2.66 147. The cross elasticity of monthly demand for gel pen when the price of refills increases by 20% and demand for gel pens falls by 30% is equal to: (a) – 0.71 (b) + 0.25 (c ) – 0.19 (d) – 1.5 148. The cross elasticity of monthly demand for ink pen when the price of gel pen increases by 25% and demand for ink pen increases by 50% is equal to: (a) + 2.00 (b) – 2.00 (c ) – 2.09 (d) + 2.09. Read the following table and answer question number 149 – 150. TABLE -3 Number of Products Total Utility Marginal Utility 0 0 1 3600 2 6800 3 9600 4 12000 5 14000 6 15600 7 16800 8 17600 9 18000 149. What is marginal utility when consumption increases from 4 units to 5 units? (a) 3000, (b) 1200, (c) 2000 (d) 1500 150. What is marginal utility when consumption increases from 8 units to 9 units? (a) 3000, (b) 400, (c ) 2000, (d) 1500. SECTION – D: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ( 50 MARKS) (i) Questions 151 to 160 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (ii) Questions 161 to 170 are the fill in the blank based questions having four alternate answers and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. (iii) Questions 171 to 200 are numerical based questions, which has answers as numerical value and carry + 1 mark each for correct answer and – 0.25 mark for each wrong answer. PART: 1. 151. This method presents data with the help of a paragraph or a number of paragraphs. (a) Tabular presentation, (b) Textual presentation, (c ) Diagrammatic representation, (d) None of these. 152. If two events A and B are independent, the probability that they will both occur is given by (a) P (A) + P (B), (b) P (A) X P (B), (c ) P (A) – P (B), (d) P (A) /P (B). 153. The Normal curve is (a) Positively skewed, (b) Negatively skewed, (c) Symmetrical (d) All of these. SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 15 154. If x denotes height of a group of students expressed in cm. And y denotes their weight expressed in kg., then the correlation coefficient between height and weight. (a) Would be shown in kg, (b) Would be shown in cm, (c ) Would be shown in kg. and cm. (d) Would be free from any unit. 155. The base of log6 13 into the common logarithmic base is (a) log6 10 /log6 13, (b) log10 6 /log10 13, (c ) log10 13 /log10 6, (d) None of these 156. Data collected on minority from the census reports are (a) Primary data, (b) Secondary data, (c ) Discrete data (d) Continuous data. 157. The nationality of a person is an example of (a) A variable, (b) A discrete variable, (c ) A continuous variable, (d) An attribute. 158. The total sum of the values of a given year divided by the sum of the values of the base year is a (a) Price index, (b) Quantity index, (c ) Value index, (d) None of these. 159. Find the first derivative of y = loge x (a) 1/x (b) e.log x (c ) 1/x e (d) None of these. 160. Fisher’s ideal index is (a) Arithmetic mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s index, (b) Median of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s index (c) Geometric mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s index (d) None of these. PART: II. 161. ____________ is the upper part of the table, describing the columns and sub columns. (a) Box head (b) Stub (c ) Caption (d) Body 162. The correlation between sale of cold drinks and day temperature is ____________ (a) Zero (b) Positive (c ) Negative (d) None of these 163. In case of a __________ , plotted points on a scatter diagram lie from lower left corner to upper right corner. (a) Zero correlation (b) Negative correlation (c) Positive correlation (d) Simple correlation 164. The ___________ the size of the sample more reliable is the result. (a) Medium (b) Smaller (c ) Larger (d) None of these 165. ___________ are the values dividing a given set of observations into ten equal parts. (a) Quartiles (b) Deciles (c ) Centiles (d) None of these. 166. Variance of a binomial distribution is always ______ its mean. (a) Equal to (b) More than (c ) Less than (d) None of these 167. If in binomial distribution mean is 10 and S.D. is 2, q will be __________. (a) 0 (b) 0.2 (c ) 0.8 (d) 0.4 168. The sum of the following is ________ . 1 + 3 – 5 + 7 + 9 – 11 + 13 ……………………………… 3n terms (a) 2n2 + 3, (b) 5n2 + 2, (c) 3n2 – 4n (d) 3n2 169. If nP3 = 60 then value of n is ____________ (a) 5, (b) 2, (c ) 1, (d) 3 16 170. If one root of the equation x2 + 7 x + p = 0 be reciprocal of the other then the value of p is ______ (a) 1, (b) – 1, (c ) 7 (d) -7 PART III 171. A person borrowed Rs. 4000 and after 6 months the amount paid was Rs. 4050, find the rate of interest. (a) 5%, (b) 25%, (c ) 2.5% (d) 20% 172. The value of 16 X – 1 /4 x 2/3 is (a) 4x – 3/5 (b) 4 x 5/3 (c ) 4x –5/3 (d) None of these. 173. Evaluate n/2 1 + cos x dx 0 (a) 0 (b) 2 (c ) – 1 (d) 2 2 174. Find the value of x if 4/5 : X : 9/2 : 3/4 (a) 15/2 (b) 9/10 (c ) 3/4 (d) None of these. 175. The fourth proportional to 2/3, 3/7, 4/9, ……………. Is (a) 2/7, (b) 14/8 (c ) 7/2 (d) None of these. 176. The solution set of equations 3 X + 4 y = 7 and 4 X – y = 3, is (a) 1, 1 (b) – 1, 1 (c) 2, 1 (d) – 1, 2 177. A dealer has only Rs. 5760 to invest in fans (x) and sewing machines (y). The cost per unit of fans and sewing machine is Rs. 360 and Rs. 240 respectively. This can be shown by (a) 360 x + 240 y 5760, (b) 360 x + 240 y 5760 (c) 360 x + 240 y = 5760 (d) None of these. 178. Find the value of 8! /5! (a) 663 (b) 363 (c ) 336 (d) None of these. 179. If A = { 1 , 2, 3, 4 } and B = { 2, 4 } then A ∩ B can be written as (a) Φ, (b) { 1, 3 }, (c ) { 2, 4 } (d) {0} 180. Compute the value of lim ( x2 + 3 x + 2 ) x 1 ---------------------x3 + 2x2 -x + 1 (a) 5, (b) 9, (c ) 7, (d) 2 181. Find g o f for the functions f (X) = X , g (X) = 2 X2 + 1 (a) 2 X2 + 1, (b) 2 X + 1, (c ) 2 X2 + 1 ) ( X ), (d) X 182. Two variables X and Y are related by 5 X + 2 Y + 5 = 0 and X = 5, then Y is (a) 10, (b) – 10, (c ) 15, (d) – 15. 183. What is the median for the following observations? 10, 16, 12, 18, 22, 8 (a) 12, (b) 14 (c ) 16, (d) None of these 184. The variables x and y are related by 5 x + 6 y = 70 and median of x is 8. What is the median of y? (a) 4 (b) 4.5 (c ) 5 (d) 5.5 185. Find Q1 for the following observations. 7, 9, 5, 4, 10, 15, 14, 18, 6, 20 (a) 4.75, (b) 5.25 (c ) 5.75 (d) 6.25 SREENIVASA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS 17 186. If y = 4 + 3 x and mode of x is 25, what is the mode of y? (a) 75, (b) 25, (c ) 79, (d) 89 187. Refer following table: Frequency distribution of weights of 16 students Weight in kg. (Class interval) No. of students (Frequency) 44 – 48 4 49 – 53 5 54 – 58 7 Total 16 Find Frequency density of the second class interval. (a) 0.80, (b) 0.90, (c ) 1.00, (d) 1.10 188. The coefficient of correlation between two variables is 0.5, then the coefficient of determination is (a) 0.5, (b) 0.25 (c) – 0.5 (d) 0.5 189. A bag contains 30 balls numbered from 1 to 30. One ball is drawn at random. The probability that the number of the drawn ball will be multiple of 3 or 7 is (a) 7/15, (b) 13/30, (c ) 1 /2 , (d) None of these 190. A card is drawn from a pack of playing cards and then another card is drawn without the first being replaced. What is the probability of getting two hearts? (a) 1/17, (b) 1/4, (c ) 2/17, (d) None of these. 191. A pair of dice is thrown. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers obtained is more than 10? (a) 1/18, (b) 1/9, (c ) 1/12 (d) None of these. 192. If the relationship between x and y is given by 4 X + 5 y = 10 and the range of X is 15, what would be the range of y? (a) 10, (b) 11, (c ) 12, (d) 13 193. Which term of the progression 1, 2, 4, 8 …………………… is 64 (a) 7, (b) 5, (c ) 6, (d) 9. 194. Evaluate the integral of x. ex dx (a) ex ( X2 + 1 ) + c, (b) ex ( X + 1) + c, (c ) ex ( 2X +1) + c, (d) ex ( X – 1) + c 195. A letter lock has three rings each marked with 10 different letters. In how many ways it is possible to make an unsuccessful attempt to open the lock? (a) 1000, (b) 999, (c ) 5040, (d) None of these. 196. Find the effective rate of interest if I = Rs. 1800, P = 18000, t = 1 Year (a) 10%, (b) 9% (c ) 18% (d) None of these. 197. The length of the perpendicular from the point ( 2, 5) on the line 4 X – 3Y + 18 = 0 is (a) 2.7, (b) 2.5, (c ) 2.2, (d) 2.1. 198. If X2 eY + 4 log X = 0 then dy /dx is (a) eY 2 X2 + 4 + 8 x /X3 eY , (b) eY 2X2 – 4/X3 eY , (c) – eY 2X2 – 4 /X3 eY, (d) None of these. 199. Find dy /dx , When y = 10 X8 (a) 80 X7, (b) 10X7 (c ) 80X8 (d) None of these. 200. Evaluate lim 9X – 3X /4X – 2X x 0 (a) log3 /log2 (b) log4 /log2 (c ) log9 /log2 (d) log3 /log4