XAT 2005

CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.1 XAT 2005 SECTION − I QUANTITATIVE AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY Directions (Qs. 1 to 30): In each questions below, choose the correct alternative from the four options provided. 1. Last year Mr. Basu bought two scooters. This year he sold both of them for Rs.30,000 each. On one, he earned 20% profit, and on the other he made a 20% loss. What was his net profit or loss? [1] He gained less than Rs.2000 [2] He gained more than Rs.2000 [3] He lost less than Rs.2000 [4] He lost more than Rs.2000 2. In an examination, the average marks obtained by students who passed was x%, while the average of those who failed was y%. The average marks of all students taking the exam was z%. Find in terms of x, y and z, the percentage of students taking the exam who failed. [1] (z − x)/(y − x) [2] (x − z)/(y − z) [3] (y − x)/(z − y) [4] (y − z)/(x − z) 3. Three circles A, B and C have a common center O. A is the inner circle, B middle circle and C is outer circle. The radius of the outer circle C, OP cuts the inner circle at X and middle circle at Y such that OX = XY = YP. The ratio of the area of the region between the inner and middle circles to the area of the region between the middle and outer circle is: [1] 1/3 [2] 2/5 [3] 3/5 [4] 1/5 4. The sides of a rhombus ABCD measure 2 cm each and the difference between two angles is 90° then the area of the rhombus is [1] 2 sq. cm [2] 2 2 sq. cm [3] 3 2 sq. cm. [4] 4 2 sq. cm 5. If Sn denotes the sum of the first n terms in an Arithmetic Progression and S1 : S4 = 1 : 10 then the ratio of first term to fourth term is [1] 1 : 3 [2] 2 : 3 [3] 1 : 4 [4] 1 : 5 6. The curve y = 4x2 and y2 = 2x meet at the origin O and at the point P, forming a loop. The straight line OP divides the loop into two parts. What is the ratio of the areas of the two parts of the loop? [1] 3 : 1 [2] 3 : 2 [3] 2 : 1 [4] 1 : 1 7. How many numbers between 1 to 1000 (both excluded) are both squares and cubes? [1] None [2] 1 [3] 2 [4] 3 8. An operation ‘$’ is defined as follows: For any two positive integers x and y: x$y − x y y x + then which of the following is an integer? [1] 4$9 [2] 4$16 [3] 4$4 [4] None of these 9. If f(x) = cos(x) then 50the derivative of f(x) is [1] sin x [2] −sin x [3] cos x [4] − cos x Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.2 Vidyalankar Be sure with 10. If a, b and c are three real numbers, then which of the following is NOT true? [1] a b a b + + [2] a b a b − + [3] a b a b − − [4] a c a b b c − − + − 11. If R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 3)} and S = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (3, 2), (3, 3)} are two relations in the set X = {1, 2, 3}, the incorrect statement is: [1] R and S are both equivalence relations [2] R S is an equivalence relations [3] R−1 S−1 is an equivalence relations [4] R S is an equivalence relations 12. If x > 8 and y > −4, then which one of the following is always true? [1] xy < 0 [2] x2 < − y [3] −x < 2y [4] x > y 13. For n = 1, 2, ....... let Tn = 13 + 23 + ...n3. Which one of the following statements is correct? [1] There is no value of n for which Tn is a positive power of 2 [2] There is exactly one value of n for which Tn is a positive power of 2 [3] There are exactly two values of n for which Tn is a positive power of 2 [4] There are more than two values of n for which Tn is a positive power of 2 14. An equilateral triangle is formed by joining the middle points of the sides of a given equilateral triangle. A third equilateral triangle is formed inside the second equilateral triangle in the same way. If the process continues indefinitely, then the sum of areas of all such triangle when the side of the first triangle is 16 cm is: [1] 256 3 sq cm [2] 256 3 /3 sq cm [3] 64 3 /3 sq cm [4] 64 3 sq cm 15. The length of the sides of a triangle are x + 1, 9 − x and 5x −3 . The number of values of x for which the triangle is isosceles is: [1] 0 [2] l [3] 2 [4] 3 16. The expression 2 2 2 2 2 2 x 2x a b x 2x a b − + + + + + lies between: [1] 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 a b 1 a b 1 and a b 1 a b 1 + + + − + − + + [2] a and b [3] 2 2 2 2 a b 1 and1 a b 1 + + + − [4] 2 2 2 2 a b 1and1 a b 1 + − + + 17. What is the sum of first 100 terms which are common to both the progressions 17,21,25, ..... and 16,21,26….. [1] 100000 [2] 101100 [3] 111000 [4] 100110 18. Two persons agree to meet on January 9, 2005 between 6.00 P.M. to 7.00 P.M., with the understanding that each will wait no longer than 20 minutes for the other. What is the probability that they will meet? [1] 5/9 [2] 7/9 [3] 3/9 [4] 4/9 19. If the roots of the equation x a x b 1 x a c x b c + + = + + + + are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then [1] c a [2] a c [3] a + b = 0 [4] a = b Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.3 Vidyalankar Be sure with 20. Steel Express runs between Tatanagar and Howrah and has five stoppages in between, Find the number of different kinds of one-way second class ticket that Indian Railways will have to print to service all types of passengers who might travel by Steel Express. [1] 49 [2] 42 [3] 21 [4] 7 21. The horizontal distance of a kite from the boy flying it is 30 m and 50 m of cord is out from the roll. If the wind moves the kite horizontally at the rate of 5 km per hour directly away from the boy, how fast is the cord being released? [1] 3 km per hour [2] 4 km per hour [3] Sknuterbour [4] 6 km per hour 22. Suppose S and T are sets of vectors, where S = {(1, 0, 0), (0, 0, −5), (0, 3, 4)} and T = {(5, 2, 3), (5, −3, 4)} then [1] S and T both sets are linearly independent vectors. [2] S is a set of linearly independent vector, but T is not [3] T is a set of linearly independent vectors, but S is not. [4] Neither S nor T is a set of linearly independent vectors 23. Suppose the function ‘f’ satisfies the equation f (x + y) = f (x) f (y)“ x and y. f (x) = l + x g(x) where lim f (x’!0) g(x) = T, where T is a positive integer. If fn (x) = k f(x) then k is equal to [1] T [2] Tn [3] log T [4] (log T)n 24. Set of real numbers ‘x, y’, satisfying inequations x − 3y 0, x + y −2 and 3x − y − 2 is: [1] Empty [2] Finite [3] Infinite [4] Can’t be determined 25. ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB, DC are parallel and BC is perpendicular to them. If DAB = 45°, BC = 2 cm and CD = 3 cm then AB= [1] 5 cm [2] 4 cm [3] 3 cm [4] 2 cm 26. If F is a differentiable function such that F(3) = 6 and F(9) =2, then there must exist at least one number ‘a’ between 3 and 9, such that [1] F’ (a) = 3/2 [2] F(a) = −3/2 [3] F’ (a) = − 3/2 [4] F’ (a) = −2/3 27. A conical tent of given capacity has to be constructed. The ratio of the height to the radius of the base for the minimum amount of canvas required for the tent is [1] 1 : 2 [2] 2 : 1 [3] 1 : 2 [4] 2 : 1 28. If n is a positive integer, let S (n) denote the sum of the positive divisors of n, including n and G(n) is the greatest divisor of n. If H(n) = G(n)/S(n) then which of the following is the largest? [1] H(2009) [2] H(2010) [3] H(2011) [4] H(2012) 29. If the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 − 2ax + b = 0 is equal to that of the roots x2 − 2cx + d = 0, then [1] a2b = c2d [2] a2c = b2d [3] a2d = c2b [4] d2b = c2a 30. X and Y are two variable quantities. The corresponding values of X and Y are given below: X: 3 6 9 12 24 Y: 24 12 8 6 3 Then the relationship between X and Y is given by: [1] X +Y ± X −Y [2] X + Y = 1/(X − Y) [3] X = Y [4] X = l/Y Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.4 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 31 to 34): Read the following and answer questions 31 to 34 based on the same. • Eight sets A, B, C, D, E, F. G and H are such that • A is a superset of B, but subset of C. • B is a subset of D, but superset of E. • F is a subset of A, but superset of B. • G is a super−set of D, but subset of F • H is a subset of B. • N(A), N(B), N(C), N(D), N(E), N(F), N (G) and N(H) are the number of elements in the sets A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H respectively. 31. Which one of the following could be FALSE, but not necessary FALSE? [1] E is a subset of D [2] E is a subset of C [3] E is a subset of A [4] E is a subset of H 32. If P is a new set and P is a superset of A and N(P) is the number of elements in P, then which of the following must be true? [1] N(G) is smaller than only four numbers [2] N(C) is the greatest [3] N(B) is the smallest [4] N(P) is the greatest 33. If Q and Z are two new sets superset of H and N(Q) and N(Z) is the number of elements of the sets Q and Z respectively, then: [1] N (H) is the smallest of all [2] N(E) is the smallest of all [3] N(C) is the greatest of all [4] Either N(H) or N(E) is the smallest. 34. Which of the following could be TRUE, but not necessarily TRUE? [1] N(A) is the greatest of all. [2] N(G) is greater than N (D). [3] N(H) is the least of all. [4] N(F) is less than or equal to N(H) 35. If x + y + z = l and x, y, z are positive real numbers, then the least value of 1 1 1 1 1 1 x y z − − − is: [1] 4 [2] −8/27 [3] 16 [4] None of the above 36. ABCD is a square whose side is 2 cm each; taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle circumscribing the square is: [1] x2 + y2 = (x + y) [2] x2 + y2 = 2(x + y) [3] x2 + y2 = 4 [4] x2 + y2 = 16 37. Two players A and B play the following game, A selects an integer from l to 10, inclusive of both. B then adds any positive integer from l to 10, both inclusive, to the number selected by A. The player who reaches 46 first wins the game. If the game is played properly, A may win the game if [1] A selects 8 to begin with [2] A selects 2 to begin with [3] A selects any number greater than 5 [4] None of the above Directions (Qs. 38 & 39): Read the following and answer Questions 38 & 39 based on the same: • The demand for a product (Q) is related to the price (P) of the product as follows: Q = 100 − 2P • The cost (C) of manufacturing the product is related to the quantity produced in the following manner; C = Q2 −16Q + 2000 • As of now the corporate profit tax rate is zero. But the Government of India is thinking of imposing 25% tax on the profit of the company. 38. As of now, what is the profit maximizing output? [1] 22 [2] 21.5 [3] 20 [4] 19 Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.5 Vidyalankar Be sure with 39. If the government imposes the 25% corporate profit tax, then what will be the profit maximizing output? [1] 16.5 [2] 16.125 [3] 15 [4] None of the above 40. If X = 2 n a 2 a ... (1 r) (1 r) (1 r) + + + + + + , then what is the value of a + a (1 + r) + ... + a (1 + r)n −1? [1] X [(1 + r) + (1 + r)2 + ... + (1 + r)n] [2] X (1 + r)n [3] [(1 + r)n − 1]/r [4] X(1 + r)n−1 41. The first negative term in the expansion 7 (1 2x) + is the [1] 4th term [2] 5th term [3] 6th term [4] 7th term 42. The sum of the numbers from l to 100, which are not divisible by 3 and 5 is: [1] 2946 [2] 2732 [3] 2632 [4] 2317 Directions (Qs. 43 to 47): Read the following and answer questions 43 to 47 based on the same. Five numbers A, B, C, D and E are to be arranged in an array in such a manner that they have a common prime factor between two consecutive numbers. These integers are such that • A has a prime factor P • B has two prime factors Q and R • C has two prime factors Q and S • D has two prime factors P and S • E has two prime factors P and R 43. Which of the following is an acceptable order, from left to right, in which the numbers can be arranged? [1] D, E, B, C, A [2] B, A, E, D, C [3] B, C, D, E, A [4] B, C, E, D, A 44. If the number E is arranged in the middle with two numbers on either side of it, all of the following must be true, EXCEPT: [1] A and D are arranged consecutively [2] B and C are arranged consecutively [3] B and E are arranged consecutively [4] A is arranged at one end in the array 45. If number E is not in the list and the other four numbers are arranged properly, which of the following must be true? [1] A and D can not be the consecutive numbers [2] A and B are to be placed at the two ends in the array [3] A and C are to be placed at the two ends in the array [4] C and D can not be the consecutive numbers 46. If number B is not in the list and other four numbers are arranged properly, which of the following must be true? [1] A is arranged at one end in the array [2] C is arranged at one end in the array [3] D is arranged at one end in the array [4] E is arranged at one end in the array 47. If B must be arranged at one end in the array, in how many ways the other four numbers can be arranged? [1] l [2] 2 [3] 3 [4] 4 Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.6 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 48 to 50): Given below are questions followed by two data statements A & B for each question, see the sufficiency of the given data statements to answer it. Then Choose [1] If only one of the statements can give the answer [2] If either of them can give the answer [3] If both of them together can give the answer [4] none of these 48. Is n odd? A. n is divisible by 3,5,7,9 B. Is between 0 and 400 49. What is price of tea ? . A. Price of Coffee is 5 more than tea B. Price of Coffee is 5 less than a soft drink which is 3 times tea 50. What is % classes not attended by Radha in a course? A. 20% of classes were attended by Rani & Radha together B. No, of classes attended by Radha without Rani is 3/5 of total no. of classes attended by Radha Directions (Qs. 51 to 54): Read the following and then answer questions 51-54 based on that. The following Information is available about the exchange rates between five foreign currencies as on 31 October 2004. Currency Conversion Bid rate Ask rate From US $ to Euro(€) From US $ to Australian (AUD) From US $ to Singapore (SGD) From US $ to Indian Rupee (INR) 0.78 1.32 1.66 45.32 0.79 1.35 1.68 45.47 Here the bid and ask rates are expressed in terms of foreign currencies per unit of US $. When you sell Euro to get US$, you pay 0.79 Euros (ask rate). However, when you sell US$ to gel Euro, you get 0.78 Euros (bid rate) for every US$ you sell. Choose the alternative that is closest to the correct answer. 51. If you have 500,000 INR with you and you wish to visit Australia, how much AUD will you get in return? [1] 14515AUD [2] 14563AUD [3] 14845 AUD [4] 14894 AUD 52. How much Singapore $ will you get if you exchange 2000 INR? [1] 738 SGD [2] 730 SGD [3] 733 SGD [4] 741 SGD 53. What rate will a foreign exchange dealer quote between Euro and Singapore S? [1] 2.10(bid) and2.13(ask) [2] 2.10(bid) and 2.15(ask) [3] 2.12(bid) and2.15(ask) [4] 0.46 (bid) and 0.48 (ask) 54. An exporter from Singapore gets 20,000 Euros, and 40000 US $ from exporting Singapore umbrellas. If he decides to convert everything into his home currency, how much money will he get? [1] 110276 SGD [2] 108964 SGD [3] 108425 SGD [4] 109731 SGD Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.7 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 55 to 58):In the following table, data for the Index for Industrial production (IIP) for the mining sector, manufacturing sector and the electricity sector for India for the period 1994-95 till 2003−04 are given. Questions 55 to 58 are based on the following. Year Mining Manufacturing Electricity 1994−95 109.8 109.1 108.5 1995−96 120.5 124.5 117.3 1996−97 118.2 133.6 122.0 1997−98 126.4 142.5 130.0 1998−99 125.4 148.8 138.4 1999−00 126.7 159.4 148.5 2000−01 130.3 167.9 154.4 2001−02 131.9 172.7 1592 2002−03 139.6 183.1 164.3 2003−04 146.9 196.6 172.6 55. Which of the following sectors recorded the maximum growth during the period 1996−97 and 2000−01? [1] Mining Sector [2] Manufacturing Sector [3] Electricity Sector [4] Both the manufacturing and the electricity sector 56. In the year 1997−98 which sector recorded the lowest annual growth rate? [1] Manufacturing sector [2] Mining sector [3] Electricity sector [4] Both the electricity and the manufacturing sector 57. The electricity sector recorded the lowest growth during which year? [1] Between 2000−01 and 2001−02 [2] Between 2001−02 and 2002−03 [3] Between 1999−00 and 2000−01 [4] Between 1994−95 and 1995−96 58. In which year both the manufacturing sector and the electricity sector recorded the same growth rate? [1] 1997−98 [2] 1999−00 [3] 2001−03 [4] None of the above Directions (Qs. 59 to 62): Prem & Co, a famous HR consulting house in India has collected the following data about 200 employees working in the different departments of a Housing Finance Company. Each employee was rated on a five point scale on three aspects as shown below. Go through the table and the accompanying chart and answer questions 59 to 62 based on that. The charts compare the expected score with the actual score of the employees of each department. Departments No. of Employees Expected Score Personality Expected Score Communication Expected score Finance Knowledge Treasury 18 3 4 5 Retail 113 5 5 3 Risk Management 37 3 3 5 Research 32 3 4 4 Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.8 Vidyalankar Be sure with 59. There are 3 employees in the Treasury department that got l out of 5 in the test on “Financial knowledge”. If these employees are excluded, then what will be the average actual score of the employees of the Treasury department? [1] 3.4 [2] 4 [3] 4.6 [4] Cannot be answered from the given information 60. Which of the following statements is true? [1] Research department has performed the best in the test conducted by the HR Consultant [2] Retail department has performed the worst in the test conducted by the HR Consultant [3] No department has scored 5 in the finance knowledge test. [4] All of the above 61. What is the average score in the personality test for the entire company? [1] 4.16 [2] 4.25 [3] 4.00 [4] 3.59 62. Which of the following departments of the bank is falling short of expectations in personality assessment? [1] Treasury, Retail and Research only [2] Retail, and risk management only [3] Retail only [4] Treasury only Actual Score Finance Knowledge 5 4 3 2 1 0 Treasury Personality Communication Expected Score Actual Score 5 4 3 2 1 0 Risk Management Personality Finance Knowledge Communication Expected Score Finance Knowledge 5 4 3 2 1 0 Retail Personality Communication Expected Score Actual Score 5 4 3 2 1 0 Research Personality Finance Knowledge Communication Expected Score Actual Score Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.9 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 63 to 68): In the following chart, the inflation rate and the GNP figures are given for an island. Go through the following chart and then answer questions 63 to 68 based on that. Here, inflation in measured in % points and the values are shown on the left hand vertical axis. The GNP figures are in US $ (figures in millions) and the values are shown on the right hand vertical axis. (In the above chart, year 1990 refers to 1989-90. Other numbers are to be interpreted similarly.) 63. In which year the annual GNP growth rate was the maximum? [1] 1990−91 [2] 1994−95 [3] 1996−97 [4] 1997−98 64. In which year, the GNP growth rate was the maximum? [1] 1992−93 [2] 1993−94 [3] 1995−96 [4] 1998−99 65. In which of the following years, the inflation rate was higher than the growth rate in GNP? [1] 1990−91 [2] 1994−95 [3] 1992−93 [4] 1997−98 66. In which of the following years, the average price level in the economy declined the most? [1] 1991−92 [2] 1994−95 [3] 1999−00 [4] None of the above 67. In which of the following years, the direction of change in the inflation rate was exactly opposite that of the GNP? [1] 1990−91 [2] 1991−92 [3] 1993−94 [4] 1996−97 68. If it costs Rs. 250 to buy a basket of goods in 1990-91, then how much will it cost to buy the same basket of goods in 1994-95? Assume that the inflation" rate captures the increase in the prices of this basket of goods. [1] Rs. 302.46 [2] Rs. 280.35 [3] Rs. 319.50 [4] Rs. 328.87 Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.10 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 69 & 70): Shares in Bombay Stock Exchange trades between 10 AM and 5 PM on weekdays. The dosing price of share of Titan Industries at the end of every Friday (weekly dosing) between 2 July, 2004 and l October, 2004 is given in the following Table. The total weekly turnover (measured by the number of shares traded multiplied by the share price) is also given in the Table. Go through the Table and answer questions 69 to 70 based on that. Here the dosing price is given in Rupees per share and the turnover is given in Rs. lakhs. Date Price in Rs. lakhs Total Turnover 02−Jul−04 108.95 99.44 09-Jul-04 102.4 64.88 16-Jul-04 114.15 82.38 23-Jul-04 117.45 422 30-Jul-04 110.7 44.31 06-Aug-04 115.2 67.77 13-Aug-04 115.6 56.66 20-Aug-04 130.85 821.82 27-Aug-04 150.55 2157.50 03-Sep-04 141.2 141.25 10-Sep-04 137.55 174.19 17-Sep-04 141.35 466.55 24-Sep-04 144.9 433.06 01-Oct-04 140.1 33.62 69. On an average how many shares got traded on 20 August 2004? [1] 6,25 thousand shares [2] 49000 shares [3] 62800 shares [4] Cannot be determined 70. On which day during 2 July 2004 and l October 2004 did the shares of Titan industries quoted the highest price? [1] 27−Aug−04 [2] 29−July−04 [3] 13 Aug−04 [4] Cannot be determined Directions (Qs. 71 to 75): The percentage of revenue that comes from the four different product segments for a diversified manufacturing company are shown in the following pie charts. Figures pertaining to the year 1998 and 2000 are given on the right hand side. The total sales in the year 1998 were Rs. 120 crores. It was Rs. 195 crores in 2000. Go through them answer questions 71 to 75 based on them. Year 1998 Cement, 25% Soda, 31% Textile, 28% Others, 16% Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.11 Vidyalankar Be sure with Year 2000 Textile 31% Cement 36% Soda 25% Others 8% 71. Which product segment has registered the maximum percentage growth in revenue during the two year period? [1] Textile [2] Cement [3] Soda [4] Others 72. Which of the following statements is correct about the company? [1] The company is putting less focus on the other segment [2] Cement segment has registered more percentage growth than the textile segment. [3] The soda segment has registered a 7% growth per annum during the above two year period [4] Both [2] and [3] 73. What is the annualized percentage growth in revenue for the ‘Others’ segment? [1] −9.86% [2] −9.37% [3] 12.34% [4] −18.75% 74. If the textile segment continues the current trend in growth rate, then how much sales will the company generate from textile segment in the year 2002? Choose the answer that is closest to the correct answer. [1] Rs.1139 crores [2] Rs.126 crores [3] Rs.146 crores [4] Rs.109 crore 75. What is the annualized percentage growth of revenue that the cement segment has registered for the company? [1] 134% [2] 34% [3] 52.97% [4] 67% SECTION-2 GENERAL AWARENESS 76. In the recent report on annual global corruption index, which country occupied the top ranking (as the least corrupt country)? [1] U S [2] Japan [3] Finland [4] New Zealand 77. Alan Hollinghurst won the Booker Prize for the year 2004 for which Novel? [1] The Swimming-Pool Library [2] The line of Beauty [3] Vernon God Little [4] Notes a Scandal 78. India is the No l producer of which of the following products? [1] Silver [2] Coffee [3] Wheat [4] Banana 79. Atish-e-Chiner is the autobiography of which leader? [1] Omar Khalidi [2] Salman Rushdie [3] Sheik Abdullah [4] MJ.Akbar Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.12 Vidyalankar Be sure with 80. Who painted the fresco ceiling of the famous ‘sistine chapei’ during 1508 −12? [1] Michelangelo Buonarroti [2] Leonardo da Vinci [3] RaffaeNo Sanzio [4] None of the above 81. Which of the following is not a merchant banking company? [1] SBI Caps [2] UTI [3] Merrill Lynch [4] Morgan Stanley 82. Which king of Orissa built the famous Jagannath temple at Puri? [1] Langula Narasimha Dev [2] Anang Vima Dev [3] Prataprudra Dev [4] None of the above 83. The term Trade Related Investment Measures is related to [1] NAFTA [2] GATT [3] SAPTA [4] EFTA 84. The 80 Years War, which took place from 1568 to 1648, was also called the Dutch Revolt It ended with the formal recognition of Dutch independence from which nation? [1] England [2] France [3] Spain [4] Germany 85. In 1897, a German scientist created the world's first synthetic drug, and the modem pharmaceutical industry was born. That first drug still in use is: [1] Acetylsalic acid [2] Fatty acid [3] Carbonic acid [4] Clavulanic acid 86. One of the most important macroelement that usually must be added in large quantities to fields in order to maximize crop yields is [1] Iron [2] Nitrogen [3] Sulphur [4] Phosphorus 87. Which components of the DPT vaccine for children was changed in the last few years? [1] Diphtheria [2] Pertussis [3] Tetanus [4] There has been no change in any of the components. 88. If it is 6.00 am at Greenwich, then it will be 11.00 am at [1] 90°E [2] 60°E [3] 15°W [4] 75°E 89. Which of the following agencies has the power to declare any industrial unit as a potentially sick in India? [1] BIFR [2] FICCI [3] IRBI [4] MRTPC 90. Which of the following is the poorest fit in the list? [1] America online [2] Vivisimo [3] Excite [4] Altavista 91. The Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine was awarded in the year 2003 for the discoveries [1] Of odorant receptors and the organization of the olfactory system [2] Concerning magnetic regulation of organ development [3] Concerning genetic regulation of organ development and programmed cell death. [4] Of key regulators of the cell cycle 92. Who among the following is the Trinidad and Tobago’s first Prime Minister of Indian origin? [1] Basdeo Pandey [2] Bharat Jagdeo [3] Bharat Pandey [4] None of these 93. Rockefeller family made their fortune in which business: [1] Motor cars [2] Chemicals [3] Oil and petroleum [4] US railroad business Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.13 Vidyalankar Be sure with 94. The largest single-site grassroots refinery in the world is owned by: [1] Reliance Petroleum Limited [2] Shell in Brazil [3] British Petroleum [4] Indian Oil Corporation 95. Production management tools like kanban was pioneered in the shop floors of: [1] General Motors in USA [2] Toyota in Japan [3] Sony in Japan [4] Nissan in Japan 96. Which of the following awards is given for Agricultural Research? [1] Dr. Homi Bhabha Award [2] Ramon Magsaysay Award [3] Borlaug Award [4] Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award 97. What does the winner of the PGA championship receive? [1] Claret Jug [2] Ryder Cup [3] Champions Trophy [4] Wanamaker Trophy 98. Green Box subsidies refer to: [1] indirect subsidies in agriculture that are allowed under WTO. [2] Direct production related subsidies in agriculture that are not allowed under WTO [3] Subsidies related to defence production that are allowed under WTO [4] Subsidies related to exports that are not allowed under WTO. 99. In terms of techno-economic considerations, which of the following types of power plants are optimal for peak load operation? [1] Combined cycle gas based thermal power plant [2] Coal fired thermal power plant [3] Hydel power plant [4] Nuclear power plant 100. ‘Seven Sisters’, in business history refers to: [1] The major oil companies in USA in the early 20th century [2] The major US auto companies in the 1950s [3] The major Japanese Consumer electronic companies in the 1980s [4] The major speciality chemical producers in Europe 101. Japan is-a member of which of the following trading blocks: [1] NAFTA [2] APEC [3] SAFTA [4] Mercusor 102. The only developing country to win the right to impose sanctions on a G−7 trading partner through the WTC dispute settlement mechanism in the famous 'banana dispute' is: [1] Brazil [2] India [3] Columbia [4] Ecuador 103. The economic model that provided direction to Indian Five-Year Plan exercises in 1950s was provided by: [1] Rajani Palme Dutt [2] P.C. Mahalanobis [3] Romesh Chandra Dutta [4] B.G. Deshmukh 104. Pohang Iron and Steel Company is the largest integrated steelmaker of: [1] Japan [2] Brazil [3] Thailand [4] South Korea 105. Hutchison Whampao, the telecommunication major is headquartered in: [1] Singapore [2] China [3] Hong Kong [4] Malaysia Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.14 Vidyalankar Be sure with 106. The hedge-fund, Long Term Capital Management, which was recently embroiled in controversies, was founded by which of the following economists from their Nobel Prize award money? [1] Robert Lucas and Robert Mundell [2] Robert Merton and Myron Scholes [3] J.A, Mirrless and William Vickery [4] Franco Modigliani and Robert Solow 107. Which Indian company made an unsuccessful attempt at a hostile takeover of Indal, a few years back? [1] HINDALCO [2] Orissa Extrusions [3] Sterlite Industries [4] India Foils 108. Who presided over the rapid growth of the Indian pharmaceutical major Ranbaxy over the 1970s and 1980s: [1] Parvinder Singh [2] Bhai Mohan Singh [3] U.N. Mehta [4] None of the above 109. Which consulting company is the owner of the trade-mark “EVA”? [1] McKinsey & Co. [2] Boston Consulting Group [3] Stern Stewart & Co. [4] Price Water House 110. Who among the following has not received the Nobel Prize in Economics? [1] William Sharpe [2] Merton Miller [3] Franco Modigliani [4] Fisher Black SECTION-3 VERBAL AND LOGICAL ABILITY Directions (Qs. 111 to 116): Questions are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the questions. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage, After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 111. System Administrator: Our new bank automation System, the purpose of which is to increase productivity and efficiency can be installed during the day, which would disrupt our employees1 work, or else at night, which would entail much higher installation charges. Since saving money is important, we will have the system installed during the day. The system administrator's argument assumes which one of the following? [1] The monetary value of any productivity and efficiency lost during a daytime installation would be less than the difference between daytime and nighttime installation costs. [2] The monetary value of the bank automation system would not exceed the cost of having the equipment installed at night. [3] A daytime installation would be completed by no larger a crew and would take the crew no more time than would a nighttime installation. [4] Once the network has been installed, most of the company's employees will be able to use it immediately to increase their productivity and efficiency. 112. A newly developed microwave oven is much more cost effective than conventional oven: it costs only about 10 times what a conventional oven costs but it lasts up to 10 times as long as a conventional oven. Despite the manufacturer's intense efforts to publicize the advantages of the new oven, one analyst predicts that these new ovens will prove to sell very poorly. Each of the following, if true, provides support for the analysis prediction EXCEPT: [1] The new oven is being marketed in several different capacities, ranging from family-size to commercial use oven. [2] Most people who purchase ovens prefer to buy inexpensive oven rather than more durable but expensive ovens. Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.15 Vidyalankar Be sure with [3] A manufacturer of one brand of conventional oven has advertised claims that the new oven uses more electricity than do conventional ovens. [4] The heat generated by the new oven is insufficient for Indian style of cooking, a type of cooking most people find appealing. 113. A leading business magazine has come out with a survey that among the people who used computers at their place of employment last year, those who also owned portable (“Laptop”) computers earned 40 percent more on average than those who did not. It is obvious from this that owning a laptop computer led to a higher-paying job. Which one of the following identifies a reasoning error in the argument? [1] It attempts to support a sweeping generalization on the basis of information about only a small number of individuals. [2] It uncritically projects currently existing trends indefinitely into the future. [3] It concludes that one thing is caused by another although the evidence given does not support it. [4] It offers information as support for a conclusion when that information actually is not obtained from rigorous statistical analysis, 114. Automobile accident insurance premium is often higher for red cars than for cars of any other colour. To justify these higher charges, insurance companies claim that, overall, a higher percentage of red cars cause accidents than do cars of any other colour. If this claim is true, then damage to lives could undoubtedly be saved by banning red cars from the roads altogether. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument [1] Ignores the possibility that the claim of insurance companies is not based on any evidence [2] Ignores the possibility that drivers who drive recklessly have a preference for red cars [3] Does not specify precisely what percentage of red cars are involved in accidents [4] Makes an unsupported assumption that every automobile accident results in some loss of life. 115. Ramaswamy works five days each week except when on vacation or during weeks in which national holidays occur. Four days a week he works in a bank; on Fridays he works as a security guard. Last week there were no holidays, and Ramaswamy was not on vacation. Therefore, he must have worked in the bank on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday last week. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? [1] Ramaswamy never takes a vacation of more than one week in length. [2] Every day last week that Ramaswamy worked, he worked for an entire workday. [3] Ramaswamy does not take vacations in weeks in which national holidays occur. [4] Last week Ramaswamy worked neither on Saturday nor on Sunday. 116. Smoking bidis (traditional cigarette) in bed has long been the main cause of home fires. Despite a significant decline in bidi smoking in the last two decades, however, there has been no comparable decline in the number of people killed in home fires. Each one of the following statements, if true over the last two decades, helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy above EXCEPT: [1] Population densities have increased, with the result that one home fire can cause more deaths than in previous decades. [2] Home fires caused by smoking in bed often break out after the home's occupants have fallen asleep. [3] Smokers who smoke in bed tend to be heavy smokers who are less likely to quit smoking than are smokers who do not smoke in bed. [4] An increasing number of people have been killed in home fires that started in the kitchen. Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.16 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions Qs. (117 to 120): Each group of questions in this section based on a set of conditions. In answering some of questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. A company wants to select a team of four call center executives from its South Indian Centre for transfer to North India where they are going to set up a new centre. The company is managed by professional managers and is very particular about human resources and personnel relations. There are seven team members of equal ability: X, Y and Z (who are Senior), and A, B, C and D (who are Junior): The company requires that there should be two Senior Executives and two Junior Executives in the team. It is also necessary that all of the executives in a particular team are friendly with each other in order to have a real team spirit and avoid any personnel relations problem in the new centre being set up in the North. Following is the situation of relations among the seven executives: I. Y and A are not friendly II. Z and C are not friendly III. A and B are not friendly 117. If A is on the team, then which other executives must be on the team as well? [1] X, Y and D [2] X, Z and D [3] X, Z and B [4] X, Z and C 118. Which statement(s) must be false? I. Y and C are never selected together II. Z and B are never selected together, III. Z and D are never selected together [1] I only [2] I and II only [3] I and III only [4] I, II and III 119. If both Y and Z are selected, which of the executives must be on the team with them? [1] Both C and D [2] Only D [3] Both B and A [4] Both B and D 120. Which of the following statements are true for X? I. X must be selected as one of the Senior Executives on the team II. X must be selected, if C is selected III. X cannot be selected, if both A and C are rejected [1] I only [2] II only [3] II and III only [4] I, II and III Directions (Qs. 121 to 125): K.C. Das has five different kinds of sweets to give to children: Halwa, Burfi, Laddu, Kaala Jamun, Rasgulla. Jogindra, Kedarnath, Girish, Thlochar and Rameshwar went to see K. C. Das, who gave each one of them one type of sweet. • Kedarnath got either Burfi or Rasgulla. • Trilochan did not receive Laddu or Kaala Jamun • Among the five children, exactly one received Laddu and one Burfi. • No other child received the same treat as Kedarnath. • Neither Jogindra nor Girish got Kaala Jamun. • At least one child received Kaala Jamun 121. What sweet did Rameshwer receive? [1] Halwa [2] Burfi [3] Laddu [4] Kaala-Jamun 122. If Kedarnath received Rasgulla, which of the following must be true? [1] If Jogindra received Laddu, Girish received Halwa [2] If Jogindra received Burfí, Girish received Halwa [3] If Jogindra received Halwa, Trilochan received burfi [4] If Girish received Laddu, Trilochan received Rasgulia Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.17 Vidyalankar Be sure with 123. If Trilochan received halwa, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of those children who could have also received Halwa? [1] Jogindra and Kedarnath [2] Kedarnath and Girish [3] RameshwarandGirish [4] Jogindra and Girish 124. If Kadarnath received Burfí, which of the following must be false? [1] If Jogindra received Laddu, Girish received Halwa [2] If Jogindra received halwa, Trilochan received Rasgulla. [3] If Jogindra received Rasgulla, Girish received Halwa [4] If Girish received Laddu, Trilochan received Rasgulla 125. If Girish received Burfi, what must be false? [1] Jogindra received Laddu [2] Trilochan received Halwa. [3] Kedarnath received Rasgulla. [4] Trilochan received Rasgulla. Directions (Qs. 126 to 128): Shiva spends 14 days exclusive of travel time, in a total of six cities. • Each city he visits is in one of three states − Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh or Maharashtra. • Each of the states has many cities. Shiva visits at least one city in each of the three states. • He spends at least two days in each city he visits • He spends only whole days in any city. 126. If Shiva spends exactly eight days in the cities of the state of Gujarat, then which one of the following cannot be true? [1] He visits exactly two cities in Maharashtra [2] He visits exactly two cities in Uttar Pradesh [3] He visits exactly two cities in Gujarat [4] He visits more cities in Uttar Pradesh than in Maharashtra 127. If the city of Ahmedabad is in Gujarat, and if Shiva spends as many days as possible in Ahmedabad is in Gujarat, and if Shiva spends as many days as possible in Ahmedabad and as few days as possible in each of the other cities that he visits, then which one of the following must be true? [1] Shiva cannot visit any other cities in Gujarat. [2] Shiva can visit four cities in Uttar Pradesh [3] Shiva can spend six days in Ahmedabad [4] Shiva cannot spend more than four days in Maharashtra. 128. If Shiva spends three days in the cities of the state Uttar Pradesh and seven days in the cities of the state Maharashtra then which one of the following must be false? [1] He visits more cities in Gujarat than in Uttar Pradesh. [2] He visits exactly three cities in Maharashtra [3] He visits more cities in Maharashtra than in Gujarat [4] He visits exactly two cities in Maharashtra Directions (Qs. 129 to 132): Rearrange the sentences to form a coherent and intelligible paragraph. Choose the correct arrangement of the sentences given in the options after each set of jumbled sentences. 129. (a) That said, Internet piracy is rampant, and physical CD piracy continues to worsen. (b) The industry claims that file-sharing has stabilized thanks to its lawsuits. (c) In the first half of this year, global physical unit sales of recorded music rose, albeit by a tiny amount. (d) The number of music files freely available online has fallen from about l.1 billion in April 2003 to 800 m this June, according to IFPI, a record industry body. [1] dcba [2] badc [3] cbda [4] dbca Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.18 Vidyalankar Be sure with 130. (a) Complaining brought no gains, but, if done in a socially acceptable way, created cohesion among groups of staff. (b) But the moaning was a ritual. (c) In that respect, networked computers have changed nothing − apart from giving badly managed workers something new to whine about. (d) He describes various ways used to such as “deniable deprecations”, used to complain about everything from the coffee to career advancement. [1] dabc [2] dacb [3] dfaac [4] abcd 131. (a) In rich countries, virtually the entire population will be expected to be permanently connected to the Internet, both as employees and as consumers. (b) This will at last make IT pervasive and ubiquitous, like electricity or telephones before it. (c) The boundaries between office, car and home will become increasingly blurred and will eventually disappear altogether. (d) So the emphasis will shift towards making gadgets and networks simple to use. [1] adcb [2] abcd [3] cdab [4] cabd 132. (a) The cancellation of the 4 GHz version of the Pentium is Intel's clearest admission yet that clock speed is no longer the best gauge of processor performance; hence forth, it will increasingly take a back seat to other metrics. (b) For most people, Moore’s law manifests itself as a steady increase in clock speed from one year to the next. (c) But the law itself, the death of which has been announced many times, will live on. (d) What does all this mean for Moore’s law, the rule of thumb coined by Gordon Moore, Intel’s co-founder, which states that the amount of computing power available at a given price doubles every 18 months? [1] adcb [2] dbac [3] bcad [4] adbc Directions (Qs. 133 to 138): are based on the passage below. It has not been human nature to remain solely restricted to that area which is essential to its existence. We are in some degree bound by the chains of necessity and to some degree independent. Our bodies are contained within three and a half cubits, but even though that is true, it would never work to construct a house whose outer limits would comprise those same three and a half cubits. It is necessary to have a great deal of space to move freely, otherwise our health and pleasure are affected. All civilizations are living wealths that have grown on the deep soil of a rich leisure. They are for conferring honour to our personality and giving it its best worth. The perfection of our personality does not principally consist of qualities that generate cleverness or deftness or even accuracy of observation, or the rationality of analysis and generalization. It depends mostly on our training in truth and love, upon idea is that go to the root of our being. And these require the ministration of quiet time for their adequate recognition and realization in life. A true gentleman is the product of patient centuries of cultivated leisure that has nourished into preciousness a vision of honour whose value higher than that of life itself. For genuine courtesy is a creation like pictures, like music. It is a harmonious blending of voice, gesture and movement, word and action in which generosity of conduct is expressed. It reveals that n\an himself and has no ulterior purpose. Invention, construction and organization are spreading fast along the high road of our history, but the creative genius of man which acknowledged its mission to express all that has permanent value in personality is everyday loosing its dignity. It accepts cheap payment from the multitude, it is always engaged in keeping irreverent minds amused. It makes faces at things men held sacred and tries to prove that the idea is of social life. that had given us grace, the majesty of self mastery and the heroism of voluntary acceptance of suffering were for the most part unreal, false coins made real the weak for the pathetic purpose of self deception. Compressed and crowded time has its use when dealing with material Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.19 Vidyalankar Be sure with things but living truth must have for their full significance a perspective of wide leisure. The cramped life produces deformities and degeneracy, and the mina constantly pursued by the fury of haste, develops a chronic condition of spiritual dyspepsia. I do not put my faith in any new institution, but in the individuals all over the world who think clearly, feel nobly and act rightly, thus becoming the channels of moral truth. Our moral idea is do not work with chisels and hammers. Like trees they spread their roots in the soil and branches in the sky, without consulting any architect for their plans. 133. The purpose of the author in the above passage is to: [1] Engage in a criticism of civilization [2] Argue in favour of a laid back life [3] To enquire into the meaning of necessity and excess [4] To argue in favour of a spartan life 134. Dyspepsia, as used in the passage, refers to: [1] A violent mental condition [2] Indigestion [3] insanity [4] An inability to think deeply 135. Which of the following statements do NOT follow from the above passage? [1] The author does not like the implications of' living in a mass-consumerist society. [2] People living in large houses with ample excess space would not suffer from spiritual disorder [3] The motivation for the cultivation of idea is cannot be understood within a functionalist framework. [4] Loss of dignity of heroism can lead to a celebration of the mundane. 136. Which of the following observation is consistent with the argument in the above passage? [1] A creative organization has to maintain a high pressure work environment. [2] An organization just needs to design the right systems to make employees creative. [3] Innovation depends to a large extent on the 'belief system' of the key personnel in an organization. [4] Capital market pressures can effectively force a firm to be creative 137. Which of the following statement do NOT reflect the spirit of the usage of the idea of 'leisure' by the author? [1] Leisure is an escape from the necessities of presenthood [2] Leisure is an enjoyment of excess and leads to corruption of the mind. [3] It is in leisure that thoughts and ideas that have taken civilization forward were formed. [4] A society that does not create space for leisure is unlikely to unleash significant creative energies. 138. The author observes that there is a growing loss in dignity of idea, which leads to several consequences. The outcome that most worries the poet is: [1] Loss of leisure [2] People getting tied to necessities of the present [3] The argument that voluntary acceptance of suffering were for the most part unreal, false coins made real by the weak for the pathetic purpose of self deception. [4] Undermining of creative pursuits Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.20 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 139 to 143): are based on the passage below: I have tried to suggest that there is an interaction between the creator of the cultural idiom and the patron, that idiom itself is not independent of this relationship, but in this process an institution is born that has wide social relevance, By institution I do not mean only a public By institution I do not mean only a public organization, but an integrated, organized behavior pattern through which social control is exercised. The bard or the poet is seemingly only concerned with raja, but his composition as a prasasti, becomes a cultural form. The eulogy focuses on political power. This in turn, reflects on the role of the bard in relation to the raja and also fixes certain functions of the bard in society where the bard becomes the legitimizer of the king but can, also, for this reason, articulate a protest against the king. The trader and the artisan are concerned with the sangha, but both the stupa and the nature of donations to it impinge on a large range of social concerns, involving the status of the donor as well as the function of the sangha in society. The stupa draws on the institution of bhikkhus of renouncers, who on joining the order, discontinued their normal social obligations, but created an alternative society, giving rise to a kind of moral authority which could impinge on social behaviour and political action. A king donates wealth for a temple built by an architect. From this is born a parallel institution of existing ones, with a multiplicity of social roles. The temple has a horizontal nexus with its patrons which is based on a relatively equal exchange of wealth for legitimation and the social recognition of piety. But it also has a vertical nexus with those who keep it going, which endorses and legitimizes a hierarchy of unequal status and dependence, as well as an inequality of social access to the goods and services of the temple. The temple, therefore, has also to be seen as an institution, and has to be assessed as a social and political statement apart from its religious function. In each case a new cultural idiom is created, a new cultural signal. But our recognition, comprehension and acceptance of this signal should go beyond the creator and the patron, and should include a recognition of its social reference point for a proper understanding of ancient Indian culture. An understanding of the signal involves more than just an appreciation of its religious or aesthetic form. 139. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? [1] Renouncing of 'this worldly' pursuits by bhikkhus was a dishonest endeavour as the stupas were full of wealth. [2] Renouncers ultimately lived a very comfortable life [3] All renouncers became powerful enough to challenge the monarchical power [4] None of the above 140. Which of the following statement is supported by arguments in the above passage? [1] The prasasti is not a creative expression of the bard. [2] Since the bard survives on the financial patronage of the king, he can never, in reality articulate a protest against the king. [3] Cultural idioms cannot be politically neutral [4] Institutions built around patronage do not survive for too long. 141. Institution, as understood by the author in the above passage, refers to: [1] A public organization financed by the king [2] A set of organized social norms that play a role in social organization [3] A set of norms which the powerful force upon the less powerful [4] A place where social exchange takes place Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.21 Vidyalankar Be sure with 142. Which of the following about ancient Indian society is implied from the above passage? [1] Dissent was not tolerated [2] The king commanded an absolute power over his subjects [3] There was very little appreciation for aesthetics of cultural forms .and idioms [4] The power of monarchy was mediated through several institutions that allowed articulation of alternatives. 143. Which of the following words are nearest in meaning to the word ‘legitimation’ as used in the above passage? [1] Connivance [2] Legal [3] Canonical [4] None of the above Directions (Qs. 144 to 148): are based on the passage below. The romantic environmental claims that ecosystem. people want to remain ecosystem people. This is the anti-modern, anti-Western, anti-science position of some of India’s best known new-Gandhian environmentalists. This position is also gaining currency among some sections of Western academics. Anthropologists, in particular, are falling over themselves in writing epitaphs to development, in works that seemingly dismiss the very prospects of directed social change in much of the Third World. It is implied that development is a nasty imposition on the innocent peasant and tribal, who, left to himself, would not willingly partake of Enlightenment rationally, modem technology and of modem consumer goods. This literature has become so abundant and so influential that it has even been anthologized, in a volume (what else!) THE POST DEVELOPMENT READER. The editor of this volume is a retired Iranian diplomat living now in South of France. The authors of those other demolitions of the development project are, without exception, tenured professors at well established American universities. I rather suspect that the objects of their sympathy would cheerfully exchange their social position with those of their chroniclers. For it is equally a fallacy that ecosystem people want to remain as they are, that they do not want to enhance their own resource consumption, to gel some of the benefits of science, development and modernity. The point can be made more effectively by way of an anecdote. Some years ago, a group of Indian scholars and activists gathered in the Southern town of Manipal for a national meeting in commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's I25th birth anniversary. They spoke against a backdrop of a life size portrait of Mahatma Gandhi, clad in the loincloth that he wore for the last thirty three years of his life. Speaker after speaker invoked the dress as symbolizing the message of the Mahatma. Why did we all not follow his example and give up everything, to thus mingle more definitively with the masses? Then on the last evening, the Dalit poet Devanur Mahadeva got up to speak − reading out a short poem in Kannada, written by a Dalit woman of his acquaintance. The poem spoke reverentially of the great Untouchable leader B.R. Ambedkar, and especially, of the dark blue suit that Ambedkar invariably wore in the last three decades of his life. Why did the Dalit lady focus on Ambedkar’s suit, asked Mahadeva? His answer was deceptively and eloquently simple. Now, if Gandhi wears a loincloth, said Mahadeva, we all marvel at his tyaga. The scantiness of the dress, in this case, is a symbol of what the man has given up. A high caste, well born, English educated lawyer had voluntarily chosen to give up power and position and live the life of an Indian peasant. That is why we memorialize the loin−doth. However, if Ambedkar had worn a iron-cloth that would not occasion wonder or surprise. He is a Dalit − what else should he wear − millions of his caste fellows wear nothing else. It is a fact that he escaped this fate. The fact of his extraordinary personal achievements − a law degree from Lincoln 's Inn, a Ph. D. from Columbia University, the drafting of the constitution of India − have allowed him to escape the fate that society and history had allotted to him that is so effectively symbolized in that blue suit. Modernity not tradition, development not stagnation, is responsible or this inversion, for the successful and all too infrequent storming of the upper caste citadel. Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.22 Vidyalankar Be sure with 144. Which of the following statements is NOT necessarily implied by the arguments in the above passage? [1] The ecosystem people can enhance resource consumption to the level of the tenured professors of American universities. [2] The author does not agree with anthropologists see bleak prospects for a projects of development [3] It is a fallacy that people always want to continue in their current social position [4] The chroniclers of the ‘Life word’ of peasants and the tribal often lack authenticity. 145. From the passage it can easily be inferred that the author: [1] Is a strong opponent of the environmental movement [2] Is opposed to the idea is of Mahatma Gandhi [3] Has a distaste for academic pursuit [4] None of the above 146. Which of the following statements, if true, does not explain the publication of the Post Development Reader? [1] Publication decisions are taken by a handful of people [2] Publication decisions depend on the institutional affiliation of the author [3] Publication of an anthology happens only when an idea has matured and has been put into practice [4] Publication of an anthology depends on the publisher's projection of the size of the reader group 147. The saga of the Iranian diplomat brings out the position of the proponents of romantic environmentalism. Which of the following statement about romantic environmentalists would the author readily endorse? [1] They are deliberately [2] The context of their object of study is far removed from their own life world [3] They are after cheap popularity [4] They are indifferent to the fate of their subjects 148. Which of the following statements do NOT follow from the above passage? [1] Espousing the traditional can never yield fame and success [2] Symbols can be better understood by people who share the context within which they were formed [3] Surprise and wonder is caused only by events out of the ordinary [4] None of the above Directions (Qs. 149 to 152): are based on the passage below: It is well known that a child learns to walk, to talk, and to know his way around the world just by trying something out and seeing what happens., then modifying what he does (or thinks) in accordance with what has actually happened. In this way, he spends his first few years in a wonderfully creative way, discovering all sort of things that are new to him, and this leads people to look back on childhood as a kind of lost paradise. As the child grows older, learning takes on a narrower meaning. He accumulates knowledge to please others. He learns then for some utilitarian purpose and not mainly for the love of the action of learning itself So, his ability to see something new and original gradually dies away. And without it there is evidently no ground from which anything can grow. Evidently then, the ability to learn something new is based on the general state of mind of a human being. It does not depend on special talents, nor does it operate only in special fields. But when it does operate, there is an undivided and total interest in what one is doing. Only this kind of whole-hearted interest will give the mind the energy needed to see what is new and different, especially when the later seems to threaten what is familiar, precious, secure, or otherwise dear to us. It is clear that all the great scientists Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.23 Vidyalankar Be sure with and artists had such a feeling for their work. But no matter what his occupation may be, anyone can, in principle, approach life in this way. Here I am reminded on Anne Sullivan, who was the teacher of Helen Keller. When she carne to teach this child, who was blind and deaf from an early age, she met a wild animal. She worked with the child as best as she could, with all the energies at her disposal, remaining extremely sensitively observant, feeling out the unknown mind of the child, and eventual learning how to communicate with her. The key step here was to teach the child to forma concept (which she had never learned, because she had not been able to communicate with other people to any significant extent). This was done by causing her to come in contact with water in a wide variety of different forms and contexts, each time scratching the word ‘water’ on the palm of her hand. For a long time the child did not grasp what it was all about. But suddenly she realized that all these different experiences referred to one substance in its many aspects which was symbolized by the word 'water' scratched in her palm. This initiated a fantastic revolution in the whole of her mind, the depth and scope of which we find hard to appreciate without having experienced directly what it means to live without conceptual abstractions. 149. According to the author’s arguments, which of the following statement sheds light on why a child is in a more creative state of mind? [1] A child doesn’t understand its own self interest [2] A child does not want security of familiarity [3] Knowledge acquisition for the child is not a mere accumulative process [4] None of the above 150. The experience of Helen described above can best be summarized by: [1] Fun [2] Joy [3] Excitement [4] Revelation 151. Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in the formation of ‘concept’ as described above? [1] Reconciliation of information derived from at least two different-perceptual media. [2] Deciphering the multiple information content in a signal [3] Searching for similarities across differences [4] None of the above 152. Which of the following does NOT necessarily follow from the above passage? [1] Utilitarian learning cannot lead to creative discoveries [2] Abstractions are .the bedrock on which inter−subjective human communication rests [3] Creativity is not the preserve of a few select professions [4] Creative engagements are most often subversive Directions (Qs. 153 to 159): are based on the passage below. For years I kept a phrenology bust in my office. My colleagues had various reactions to it: some were amused; some were perplexed or even embarrassed. But it reminded us of the perils of junk science, proof that a little learning is a dangerous thing. Phrenology, the “science” of attributing one's personality to cranial features, arose in the nineteenth century, at the dawn of the field of psychology. At that time, the notion of personality entered the popular mind and physiological foundations for personality, if not rigorously documented, seemed plausible. More than a century later, the field of psychobiology is booming, and phrenology has no place in U. The wheels of scientific study grind slowly, but they grind. exceedingly fine. Discredited by the absence of rigorous theory or empirical evidence, phrenology was tossed into the dustbin. A lot of learning overcame the initial error caused by a little learning. Every field has its equivalent to phrenology. Business is no exception. Business practitioners are pragmatists, prone to assume that what works is what works. Where markets function smoothly and there is open competition among ideas, pragmatism serves pretty well. But like phrenologists in an earlier day, pragmatists are occasionally seized by ideas that seem plausible and help to explain events in a limited Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.24 Vidyalankar Be sure with arena but are backed by no evidence, sound logic, or general efficacy. Such ideas can do more harm than good. In my writing, I have criticized some of the modern-day phrenologies: conglomerate diversification, bigger is better, the merger of equals, and momentum management. The worst phrenologies of the twentieth century, Marxism and Nazism, taught us the evil consequence of failing to challenge humbug and to do so quickly. But ideas mill about because of a little learning. Thomas Jefferson argued that the antidote to a little learning is a lot of learning: "Enlighten the people generally, and tyranny and oppressions of body and mind will vanish like evil spirits at the dawn of day. " The key to Jefferson’s antidote is the liberality of one’s learning, the sampling of diverse ideas and facts. About 50 years ago, A. Whitney Grishwold, president of Yale University, wrote, “The only sure weapon against bad ideas is better ideas. The source of better ideas is wisdom. The surest path to wisdom is a liberal education.” With alarm I note the educational trend toward narrow vocationalism, even in business schools. Business phrenologies breed in the back alleys of the field. Where thinking can get warped -the poster child here is Enron’s aggressive use of special purpose entities. Though the practitioner needs to be his or her own best teacher, business schools and institutes can help one get a lot of learning. At its best, the MBA has stood for liberal training across the business specialties and for a graduate who can smell humbug and not be afraid to say so. Learning based on uncritical, rote memorization is no preparation for a career-of action and risk taking but is exactly what your local phrenologist depends on. Instead, the learning of that matter requires testing and debate. That’s why discussion based education is so important: it exercises skills of analysis and argument. And it is why penetrating research is crucial. The humanistic tradition of transparent documentation, hypothesis testing, replication of experiments ,and debate is the antidote to a little learning. And it is the source of ideas from academics that improve business practice, such as business ethics, linear programming, conjoint analysis, and the theory of option pricing. Do we need schools to help us learn? The Internet has sprouted many degree programs. Aren’t these just as good as the program based in physical places? I don’t think so, for at least two reasons. First, learning is deeper and richer when it occurs in a group. As T.S. Eliot said, “there is no life not lived in community.” Learning on the Internet remains a solitary experience. I doubt that the chat room can replace in-person peer coaching, challenge, and debate. Second, learning is better with a teacher. Raw ingredients and a good kitchen aren’t enough to make a great meal. Economist Paul Romer has argued that a good cooking requires the human elements of creativity and leadership. So it is with learning: the teacher’s creativity organized the resources and leads the student to insights. Disillusionment about the mission of business learning creates a downward spiral of poor engagement between practitioners and business schools. It’s a race to the bottom, practitioners ask less and less, and the schools oblige. For instance, executives seem to want fewer days in training and less nuisance, discussion and reflection. Corporate recruiters are demanding narrowly trained MBAs exactly when we need liberally trained professionals. At the heart of each of the 22 business scandals that erupted between 1998 and 2002 lay a bad idea cradled by narrow, self-serving professionalism. The slump in corporate and individual philanthropy will chill the business learning that occurs through research, especially the challenging, provocative new work. Many schools, in turn, humbled by their financial problems and the business scandals, have hunkered down into a customer-service mentality, focusing on marketing and league tales, rapid imitation, and toning down the mission of social criticism, testing, and argument. Put this all together and it’s like a picture by Brueghel or Hogarth, in which people are leaving undone the things that ought to be done and doing the other. Yes I remain cautiously optimistic. The interface between business practice and the academy is a market of ideas. As Joseph Schumpeter wrote 62 years ago, free markets will self-correct,. led by entrepreneurs, agents of change who find their opportunities wherever they see room for improvement. Dissatisfaction with the race to the bottom will eventually spur agents of change − both scholars and thoughtful practitioners − to offer a better model for business learning. Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.25 Vidyalankar Be sure with 153. The author compares phrenology with present day management education in business schools because [1] Management education prepares the students to take decisions on the basis of cranial features. [2] Both phrenology and management education prepares the students to become pragmatists. [3] Management education is not preparing the students in the area of critically analyzing the modern-day business phrenologies. [4] Wheels of scientific study grind slowly and over a period of time phrenology has transitioned into management science. 154. Which of the following statement is false? [1] The author argues that little learning can lead to situation like that of Enron where aggressive use special purpose entities resulted in mismanagement of the organization. [2] Pragmatists are occasionally seized by ideas, e.g., conglomerate diversification, bigger is better, the merger of equals, etc., that seem plausible but are not backed by evidence, or logic. [3] Ideas of Joseph Schumpeter are not applicable as they were not based on rigorous research. [4] Learning is better with a teacher as it requires active involvement of teachers for organizing the resources and leading the students to develop insights. 155. Self serving professionalism, as used in the passage, refers to: [1] Professionalism for serving the cause of management. [2] Professionalism of selfish people [3] Professionalism that excludes stakeholders [4] None of the above 156. If the author of this passage becomes director of a business school then he is LIKELY to do which of the following: [1] Invite practitioners from industry for guest lectures. [2] Stop summer internship for MBA students [3] Discontinue short term management education programmes [4] Both [1] and [3] 157. The author believes that business learning is required more than ever in present times because [1] Corporate recruiters are demanding narrowly trained business graduates (MBAs). [2] Business schools can teach modern-day business phrenologies. [3] Slump in corporate and individual philanthropy, which has a negative impact on the financial conditions of business schools, needs to be corrected with the help of business education. [4] Business learning and penetrating research can provide ideas for improving business practices. 158. According to the author, business education should have [1] High spread and low depth so as to create more generalists than specialists. [2] Greater focus on requirements of corporate recruiters [3] Learning based on principles of falsification [4] No role in today's world as practitioner needs to be his or her own teacher. 159. Which of the following will NOT be an apt title of this passage? [1] Pathology of Management Education [2] Management Education at Crossroads [3] End of Executive MBA education [4] Little Learning is a Dangerous thing Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.26 Vidyalankar Be sure with Directions (Qs. 160 to 163): are based on the following passage: Taxonomy can be described as the orderly classification of organisms according to their presumed natural relationship, Three distinct steps are involved. First, each species must be identified, described, and named. Second, each species is placed in its correct phylogenetic position relative to other species. Third, keys or means allowing the Identification of species by non-taxonomists need to be prepared. To ensure reproducibility and generalization that form the foundation of all social and biological! studies, a sound understanding of all three of these steps is required. Reproducibility − the potential for other worker to repeat apiece of work is fundamental to all scientific research, and whether the discipline is biochemistry, physiology or ecology, the identity of the species studied is essential information. Observations, of themselves, are of little value to science. Only when facts are placed in a proper context can generalizations be made or tested, From the observed similarities and differences between the studied species and closely related or distantly related species, the significance of the observed facts can be discussed and more accurate generalizations developed. Sound taxonomy, then, is a critical prerequisite of the work of all biologists. It has as well its ‘service’ functions. Taxonomy supplies through the delineation of phylogenetic relationships within and between groups, the basic data for developing and testing ideas on pattern and mechanism in the evolutionary process and in biogeography. 160. “Observations, of themselves, are of little value. to science”, because, [1] They are without any purpose [2] For generalization, they have to be related to other facts [3] They are not systematic and are not, therefore, amenable to scientific interpretation [4] They can be given meaning only if they are collected by a scientist 161. Which one of the following statement is the closest to the central idea of the passage? [1] Taxonomic classification is necessary for the identification of the species [2] Reproducibility and generalizations are the basic criterion for judging the value of a scientific research [3] Taxonomy provides the base for the placement of Observations in the right perspective for generalizations [4] It is very-necessary to understand well the steps in taxonomic classification in order to conduct scientific research in biological sciences 162. How does taxonomy help in biogeography? [1] It guarantees proper identification of species [2] It discharges a ‘service’ function [3] It supplies the basic data for developing and testing specific ideas [4] It helps in relating man to the physical environment 163. According to the author, which of the following information is considered essential for research in life sciences? [1] Hypothesis regarding species [2] Reproducibility of species [3] Generalizability of species [4] Taxonomic classification of species Directions (Qs. 164 to 168): pick the right meaning of the following words. 164. REFLECT [1] To swerve [2] To collapse [3] To ponder [4] To break Paper CAT\Test\Various Exam.Papers\XAT-2005\Page.27 Vidyalankar Be sure with 165. CONCUR [1] To wish [2] To coincide [3] To live out [4] To collide with 166. REMIT [1] To abate [2] To become ill again [3] To expose to suspicion [4] To negotiate 167. COMPROMISE [1] To surrender completely [2] To corroborate [3] To expose to suspicion [4] To negotiate 168. CONTEND [1] To scorn [2] To assert [3] To ponder [4] To concur Directions (Qs. 169 to 175): For each of the words mentioned below, choose the option that does NOT convey the right meaning 169. DISPENSE [1] To forego [2] To deal out [3] To disregard [4] To distribute 170. ACCESS [1] Admittance [2] Entrée [3] Summons [4] None of the above 171. RETAINER [1] Advisor [2] Fee [3] One who serves a person or a household [4] None of the above 172. PRONE [1] Inclined [2] Exhausted [3] Prostrate [4] None of the above 173. ARREST [1] To stop [2] To weaken [3] Prostrate [4] None of the above 174. CONSEQUENCE [1] Progress [2] Importance [3] Result [4] None of the above 175. SHEER [1] Steep [2] Tension [3] Down right [4] None of the above