SOLUTIONS & ANSWERS FOR AIPMT MAINS-2010 VERSION – A [PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY] 1. A thin circular ring of mass m and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant --------Ans: ( ) m 2 MM+ w Sol: L = Iw = I’w’ ⇒ w’ = ( ) 2 2 R m 2 M MR ' + w = Iw I = ( ) m 2 MM+ w 2. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of mass M and radius R/3 is removed concentrically --------Ans: 9 40 MR2 Sol: I1 = ( ) 2 MR 9 R M 9 . 21 2 2 = IC = 18 MR 3R M. 21 2 2 = I = I1 - IC = 18 MR 2 MR 9 2 2 - = ( ) 18 80 18MR 1 81 2 = - MR2 = 9 40 MR2 3. A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration--------Ans: T MV 21 2 Sol: AV Power = T MV 21 TKE 2 = D Instantaneous power = T MV2 . It is presumed that the question is for average power and not instantaneous power 4. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, both of the same mass and same external diameter--------Ans: Solid cylinder Sol: Isolid < Ihollow \ asolid > ahollow ⇒ Solid cylinder will reach bottom first. + q = 22 RK 1 sin g a Q , K small for solid cylinder K larger for hollow cylinder 5. The dependence of acceleration due to gravity `g’ on the distance `r’ from --------Ans: Graph (d) Sol: From r = 0 to r = R, g µ r From r = R to r > R, g µ 2 r1 6. The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving --------Ans: - 2 1 R1 R1 GmM 21 Sol: DE = - - - 1 2 R 2 GMm R 2 GMm = - 2 1 R1 R1 2 GMm 7. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time--------Ans: e1 + 2e2 Sol: g = 2 TH 2 ⇒ TT 2 HH gg D + D = D = e1 + 2e2 8. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed--------Ans: 60° Sol: u cosq = 2u ⇒ cosq = 21 ⇒ q = 60° 9. (a) Centre of gravity (CG) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.--------Ans: (a) and (b) Sol: (a) and (b) are correct 10. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by --------Ans: The wavelength l is 188.4 m and the wave amplitude is 10 V/m Sol: ( )j ˆkx t 10 cos 10 E 7 + = V/m Amplitude = 10 V/m (c) is correct c = 3 ´ 108 m s-1 w = 107 rad s-1 c = 30 1 10 310 c k k 8 7 = ´ = w = ⇒ w = 0.03 rad m-1 ⇒ (b) is wrong. c = fl = p w 2 l ⇒ l = 7 8 10 10 3 2 c 2 ´ ´ p = wp = 60p = 188.5 m ⇒ (a) is correct \ Answer is (3) a & c are correct 11. A particle moves in x-y plane according to rule x = a sin wt and y = a cos wt--------Ans: a circular path Sol: x2 + y2 = a2 ⇒ circular path 12. The speed of light in media M1 and M2 is 1.5 ´ 108 m/s and --------Ans: equal to greater than sin-1 43 Sol: i ³ C sin C = 43 25 . 1 1 = = m ⇒ i ³ sin-1 43 13. A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position --------Ans: 30° Sol: r1 + r2 = A = 60° At minimum deviation, r1 = r2 = r ⇒ r = 2 60 2A ° = = 30° 14. A monoatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to --------Ans: 32 P1 Sol: P1V1g = P2V2g, g = 35 for monoatomic gas P2 = P1 ( ) 3 /5 1 21 8 P VV = g = 32 P1 15. If cP and cV denote the specific heats (Per unit mass)--------Ans: cP - cV = MR Sol: cP - cV = MR (Q CP - CV = R) 16. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is --------Ans: equal to zero Sol: M = 0 for diamagnetic atom 17. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R--------Ans: R 2 2 i 0 m Sol: M = ´ m ´ R 2 i 21 2 0 = R 2 2 i 0 m 18. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d --------Ans: zero Sol: ( ) B v q F ´ = = 0 ( ) 0 v = Q 19. A closely wound solenoid of 20000 turns and area of cross -section--------Ans: 1.5 ´ 10-2 N m Sol: t = BINA sinq = 5 ´ 10-2 ´ 2 ´ 2000 ´ 1.5 ´ 10-4 sin 30° = 1.5 ´ 10-2 N m 20. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then--------Ans: ( ) 2 /1 2 2 2 1 V V LC - Sol: U1 = 2 1 CV 21 U2 = 2 2 CV 21 ( ) 2 2 2 1 2 1 L 2 V V C 21 U U U L i 21 - = - = = ⇒ i = ( ) 2 /1 2 2 2 1 V V LC - 21. Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and -Q face each other at a certain distance--------Ans: decrease Sol: E’ = KE ⇒ decreases 22. The electric field at a distance 2R 3 from the centre of a charged--------Ans: Zero Sol: E = 0 at any point inside a charged shell. 23. The thermo emf E in volts of a certain thermocouple is found--------Ans: 225 °C Sol: 0 15 2 30 ddE = q - = q ⇒ 215 30´ = q i.e. q = 225 °C 24. A particle having a mass of 10-2 kg carries a charge of --------Ans: Both ®Band ®Eshould be along the direction of velocity. Sol: (b) and (c) are correct. Note (c) will be correct only if v BE = . No other choices is correct. 25. When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number --------Ans: 2 N and T Sol: I µ N T depends only on work function and frequency. 26. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1)--------Ans: 7 V Sol: E3 = 2 3 6 . 13 - = -1.51 eV E = E3 - E1 = -1.51 - (-13.6) = 7 eV \ V = 7 V 27. The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are --------Ans: 23.6 M eV Sol: Q He H H 42 21 21 + = + \ Q = (4 ´ 7) - 4 ´ 1.1 = 23.6 M eV 28. The decay constant of a radio isotope is l. If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and --------Ans: ( ) l- 2 1 A A Sol: A1 = |lN1| ⇒ N1 = l1 A A2 = |lN2| ⇒ N2 = l2 A N = (N1 - N2) = ( ) l- 2 1 A A 29. For transistor action:--------Ans: The base region must be very thin and lightly doped. Sol: (b) is correct (c) is correct 30. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the--------Ans: NAND GATE Sol: Gives high output when any of the inputs are zero and a low output only when both inputs are high ⇒ NAND GATE. 31. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of DH and DS are--------Ans: 373.4 K Sol: T = 1 1 1 3 mol K J 8 . 108 mol J 10 63 . 40 SH - - - ´ = DD = 373.4 K 32. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s--------Ans: 1.0 ´ 10-35 m Sol: l = 1 34 s m 100 kg 66 . 0 Js 10 6 . 6 mv h - - ´ ´ = = 1 ´ 10-35 m 33. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum--------Ans: Zero Sol: For free expansion the work done is zero. 34. The following two reactions are known:--------Ans: +6.2 kJ Sol: Equation (1) - 2 ´ Equation (2) gives required equation. Hence -26.8 kJ - (2 ´ -16.5 kJ) = +6.2 kJ 35. The reaction 2A(g) + B(g) --------Ans: [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ¸ [(0.50)2 (0.75)] Sol: ( ) ( ) g B g A 2 + 3C(g) + D(g) 1 - 0.5 1 - 0.25 0.75 0.25 K = [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] B A D C 2 3 = ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 75 . 0 5 . 0 25 . 0 75 . 0 23´´ 36. The pressure exerted by 6.0 kg of methane gas in a 0.03 m3 vessle--------Ans: 41648 Pa Sol: P = V nRT = 03 . 0 05 . 16 402 314 . 8 6 ´ ´ ´ = 41647.7 Pa 37. Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent --------Ans: - + l + l 2 4 3 SO 0 A 0 21 31 l Sol: anion eq 0 cation eq 0 eq 0 l + l = l = - + l + l 2 4 3 SO 0 A 0 21 31 l 38. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present--------Ans: 6 Sol: There are six bridging oxygen atoms in P4O10. 39. Among the following which one has the highest--------Ans: CsF Sol: Cs+ is the biggest cation and F- is the smallest anion. 40. Which of the following oxidation states is the most--------Ans: 3 Sol: +3 is the most common oxidation state of Lanthanoids 41. Some of the properties of the two species--------Ans: Dissimilar in hybridization for central atom with different structures. Sol: NO3- is planar – sp2 H3O+ is pyramidal - sp3 42. The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and residue that is --------Ans: CaCO3 Sol: CaCO3 ¾® ¾D CaO + CO2 (A) residue gas CaO ¾ ¾ ® ¾ O H2 Ca(OH)2 (B) ¾ ¾ ® ¾ 2 CO Ca(HCO3)2 ¾® ¾D CaCO3 (C) (A) 43. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order------Ans: Cl < P < Mg < Ca Sol: Covalent radii of Ca = 1.74 A° Mg = 1.36 A° P = 1.10 A° Cl = 0.99 A° 44. Which one of the following complexes is not expected-----------Ans: [Ni (NH3)2 Cl2] Sol: [Ni (NH3)2 Cl2] is a tetrahedral complex. 45. Which one of the following compounds will be most --------Ans: CH3COCH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 Sol: It is a b-hydroxy ketone. b-hydroxy aldehydes and ketones readily undergo dehydration. 46. Among the following four compounds--------Ans: d > c > a > b Sol: Order of acidity is p-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol > phenol > methyl phenol Presence of electron withdrawing groups increases acidity of phenols and electron donating group decreases the acidity of phenols. 47. Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to--------Ans: enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base Sol: Fructose is a ketose. In presence of base it undergoes rearrangement to form an equilibrium mixture containing glucose, fructose and mannose. 48. Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is--------Ans: Gauche confirmation of ethylene glycol. Sol: The gauche conformation of ethylene glycol is more stable due to intramolecular hydrogen bond formation. 49. The IUPAC name of the compound--------Ans: pent – 3 – en – 1 -yne Sol: 5 4 3 2 1 CH3 - CH = CH - C º CH : pent – 3 – en – 1 -yne 50. When glycerol is treated with excess of HI--------Ans: 2 -iodopropane Sol: Glycerol when treated with excess of HI gives 2-iodopropane. 51. Which of the following species is not electrophilic --------Ans: H3O+ Sol: H3O+ is not electrophilic. 52. In the following reaction C6H5CH2Br--------Ans: C6H5CH3 Sol: C6H5CH2Br ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ® ¾ ether /Mg C6H5CH2MgBr ¾ ¾ ¾ ® ¾ + O H3 C6H5CH3 53. In which of the following molecules the central atom--------Ans: SF4 Sol: Central atom in SF4 is sp3d hybridized. 54. The rate of the reaction 2NO + Cl2 -> 2NOCl is given by--------Ans: Increasing the temperature Sol: Rate constant depend on temperature but not on concentration. 55. Match List-I (Equations) with List-II (type of processes)--------Ans: (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Sol: Where Kp > Q reaction is spontaneous DG = DG° + RTlnQ DG = DH - TDS 56. Match List-I (substances) with List-II (pocesses) employed in the manufacture of the --------Ans: (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Sol: Sulphuric acid -contact process Steel – Bessemer process NaOH -Leblanc process Ammonia – Haber process 57. Match the compounds given in List-I with their characteristic reactions given in List II. Ans: (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) Sol: (a) is a primary amine and it produces bad smell when warmed with alcoholic KOH and CHCl3 (carbylamine reaction) (b) Propyne is a terminal alkyne and it gives white ppt with ammoniacal silver nitrate (c) is an ester and it undergoes alkaline hydrolysis (d) is a 2° alcohol and it produces cloudiness with Lucas reagent in about 5 minutes 58. Some statements about heavy water are -----Ans: (a) and (b) Sol: Heavy water is less effective solvent, than ordinary water as its dielectric constant is lesser. 59. Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical Ans: (b) and (d) Sol: emf of cell = Eredn (cathode) - Eredn (anode) which is the same as Eoxiation(anode) + Eredn (cathode) or Eoxiation(anode) - Eoxidation (cathode) 60. Following compounds are given: Ans: (a), (b) and (c) Sol: Compounds containing CH3CO or CH3CHOH-groups will give iodoform when heated with I2 and NaOH. 61. Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options --------Ans: Head, sheath, collar, tail fibres Sol: Bacteriophage consists head, collar, sheath, end plate with fibres. 62. Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all Ans: Seleginella, Equisetum, Salvinia, Ginkgo Sol: Selaginella, Equisetum and Salvinia are pteridophytes and Ginkgo is gymnospherm. 63. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA---------Ans: Nucleus Sol: Splicing and capping of hnRNA is required for the removal of introns and making the functional mRNA. 64. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. ------Ans: Transition state, Potential energy, Activation energy without enzyme, Activaton energy with enzyme. Sol: The graph explains the concept of activation energy. 65. An elaborate network of filamentous Proteinaceous structures--------Ans: Cytoskeleton Sol: Cytoskeleton helps in motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell and mechanical support. 66. In Antirrhinum to plants with p ink flowers wer hybridized--------Ans: Rr Sol: In Amtirrhinum, the pink colour results due to an intermediate genotype is Rr. 67. The lac operon consists of --------Ans: One regulatory gene and three structural genes. Sol: lac operon means structurally different genes involved in a functional events in many ways. 68. A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype in crossed--------Ans: Test cross Sol: Test cross is used for finding the genotype of an organism in doubt. 69. Transport of food material in higher plants takes --------Ans: Sieve elements Sol: Sieve elements are the components of phloem. 70. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves --------Ans: Sugarcane Sol: Kranz anatomy is seen in C4 plants. 71. Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D and select--------Ans: (A) and (B) Sol: The option B is not correct, because a mistake in the representation of ovary fusion. 72. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by --------Ans: Offset Sol: Offset means short internode with and each node bearing rosette leaves and tuft of roots. 73. Which one of the following is manoecious--------Ans: Pinus Sol: Monoecious means bisexual and homothallic conditions. 74. The correct floral formula of soyabean--------Ans: %O K(5)C1+2+(2) A(9) + 1 G1 Sol: Soyabean belongs to the Fabaceae family. 75. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is --------Ans: (3) Diagram -refer question paper. Sol: In twisted aestivation, marginal lobes of succeeding petals are alternately overlapped. 76. Study the pathway given below--------Ans: Fixation, Decarboxylation, Regeneration Sol: Pathway of Hatch-Slack scheme of C4 – metabolism is shown. 77. Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the --------Ans: Epidermal cell, Subsidiary cell, Stomatal aperture, Guard cell Sol: Stomatal aperture is surrounded by guards cells, which in turn by subsidiary cells. 78. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements--------Ans: B and D Sol: Both the statements are correct. 79. One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea--------Ans: Indole – 3-acetic acid Sol: IAA is the derivative of auxin. 80. Root development is promoted by --------Ans: Ethylene Sol: Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair formation. 81. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which--------Ans: Offset, Antheridiophore, Antipodals, Oogonium Sol: All the diagrams are related to the reproduction. 82. Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest--------Ans: B Sol: Pyramid of number in an ecosystem shows gradual decrease from the producers to the successive consumers. 83. Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words--------Ans: Denitrification, Ammonification, Plants, Animals. Sol: Schematic representation of nitrogen cycle is shown. 84. Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified--------Ans: Opuntia Sol: Opuntia shows phylloclade modification from the stem. 85. An example of endomycorrhiza is--------Ans: Glomus Sol: Glomus is one of the important mycorrhizic fungus. 86. Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of --------Ans: Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen. Sol: Nitrogenase enzyme is sensitive to the molecular oxygen. 87. Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by--------Ans: Puccinia graminis Sol: Puccinia graminis causes black or stem rust in wheat. 88. Which of the following are used in gene --------Ans: Plasmids Sol: Plasmids are used as vector for cloning genes. 89. Which one of the following can not be used for preparation of vaccines--------Ans: Heat killed suspensions of virulent bacteria. Sol: Vaccines are either inactivated or attenuated pathogens. 90. Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by --------Ans: Insulin Sol: Insulin is produced commercially as humulin. 91. Crocodile and Penguin are similar to whale and Dogfish in which --------Ans: Have gill slits at some stage Sol: Presence of pharyngeal gill slit is a feature of all chordates. 92. Select the correct combination of the statements (a – d) regarding the characteristics of --------Ans: (a), (b), (d) Sol: Chemosynthetic bacteria produce various kinds of inorganic chemical compounds. 93. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)--------Ans: (v) (iv) (viii) (iii) Sol: The diagram is the part of ER, nucleus and cytoplasm. 94. Three of the following statements about enzymes --------Ans: Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids. Sol: Enzymes are either simple or conjugated proteins only. 95. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below--------Ans: The female parent is heterozygous. Sol: it is an autosomal disease. 96. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of --------Ans: Remarkable increase in the brain size. 97. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks.--------Ans: (D) – (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (A) – (i) convergent Sol: Vermiform appendix is vestigeal organ. 98. Fastest distribution of some injectible material /medicine and with --------Ans: Veins Sol: Intravenous injection of vaccines helps direct target of the cells through the bloods stream. 99. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and --------Ans: Hypothalamus, Forebrain, temperature, urge for eating and drinking Sol: Cerebellum is in the hind brain. No rods in blind spot. 100. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles--------Ans: Four Sol: A, B, AB and O are the four blood groups. 101.Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part -----------------Ans: Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint. Sol: These are bones of skull. 102. In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are --------Ans: Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia Sol: There are 3 types of nephirida in earthworm. 103.Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source --------Ans: Norepinephrine, Adrenal medulla, Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness Sol: a cells secrete glucagon; Prolactin secreted by anterior pituitary. 104. Given below are four statements (a – d) regarding human blood circulatory--------Ans: (a) and (d) Sol: Angina is due to reduced supply of blood to heart. AB group is universal recipient. 105. Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true--------Ans: The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell. Sol: Centriole produces aster; Histones are found in nucleosome; DNA is formed of nucleotides. 106. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their--------Ans: Tibia and fibula – Both form parts of knee joint Sol: Tibia and fibula -both form parts of knee joint. 107. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially--------Ans: Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones Sol: Parietal cells secrete HCl. 108.In human female the blastocyst --------Ans: Gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells. Sol: It get implanted in 7th day after fertilization. 109. Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose--------Ans: Male accessory glands. Sol: Semen is rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes. 110. When domestic sewage mixes with river--------Ans: The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen. Sol: BOD increase due to the sewage disposal into the water body. 111. Which one of the following is most appropriately defined--------Ans: Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food. Sol: Prey is eaten by the predator. 112. Jaundice is a disorder--------Ans: Digestive system Sol: It is due to a block in bile duct. 113. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, --------Ans: The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs. Sol: Rupture of RBC is associated with the release of haemozoin which is responsible for high recurring fever. 114. Which one of the following techniques is safest --------Ans: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Sol: MRI use strong magnetic field to avoid radiation effects. 115. The 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkages inside a --------Ans: One nucleotide with another nucleotide. Sol: In DNA nucleotides are jointed by 3’ - 5’ phosphodiester bonds. 116. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of --------Ans: (B) and (D) only. Sol: Plasmids and bacteriophages are commonly used as vectors. 117. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was--------Ans: It completes life cycle in about two weeks. Sol: Drosophila completes life cycle in two weeks. 118. Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately --------Ans: Oxytocin from maternal pituitary. Sol: Oxytocin from maternal pituitary is need. 119. The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant --------Ans: Assam Sol: Rhino is found in Kasiranga National Park. 120. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal--------Ans: 12 – 16 g Sol: A healthy individual has 12 – 16 g of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.