UGC- Computer Application- Practice Paper-Dec.2006

1 P.T.O. D—8706 Time : 1¼ hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) (Name) 2. (Signature) (Name) Roll No. (In words) Test Booklet No. Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) PAPER—II COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS D—8 7 0 6 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Serial No. of the booklet should be entered in the Answer-sheets and the Serial No. of Answer Sheet should be entered on this Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is NO negative marking. ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜ° çÙÎðüàæ 1. ÂãÜðU ÂëDU ·ð¤ ª¤ÂÚU çÙØÌ SÍæÙ ÂÚU ¥ÂÙæ ÚUôÜU Ù•ÕÚU çÜç¹°Ð 2. §â ÂýàÙ-˜æ ×𢠿æâ Õãéçß·¤ËÂèØ ÂýàÙ ãñ¢Ð 3. 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ØçÎ ¥æ ©•æÚU-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ ÂÚU ¥ÂÙæ Ùæ× Øæ °ðâæ ·¤ô§ü Öè çÙàææÙ çÁââð ¥æ·¤è Âã¿æÙ ãô â·ð¤, ¤ç·¤âè Öè Öæ» ÂÚU ÎàææüÌð Øæ ¥¢ç·¤Ì ·¤ÚUÌð ãñ¢ Ìô ÂÚUèÿææ ·ð¤ çÜØð ¥Øô‚Ø ƒæôçáÌ ·¤ÚU çÎØð ÁæØð¢»ðÐ 9. ¥æ·¤ô ÂÚUèÿææ â×æ# ãôÙð ¤ÂÚU ©•æÚU-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ çÙÚUèÿæ·¤ ×ãôÎØ ·¤ô ÜUõÅUæÙæ ¥æßàØ·¤ ãñ ¥õÚU ÂÚUèÿææ â×æç# ·ð¤ ÕæÎ ¥ÂÙð âæÍ ÂÚUèÿææ ÖßÙ âð ÕæãÚU Ù Üð·¤ÚU ÁæØð¢Ð 10. ·ð¤ßÜ ÙèÜð /·¤æÜð ÕæÜU OEßæ§ZÅU ÂñÙ ·¤æ ãè §SÌð×æÜ ·¤Úð¢UÐ 11. ç·¤âè Öè Âý·¤æÚU ·¤æ ⢻‡æ·¤ (·ñ¤Ü·é¤ÜðÅUÚU) UØæ Üæ» ÅðUÕÜ ¥æçÎ ·¤æ ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ 12. »ÜÌ ©•æÚU ·ð¤ çÜ° ¥¢·¤ Ùãè¢ ·¤æÅðU ÁæØð¢»ðÐ Answer Sheet No. : ................................................ (To be filled by the Candidate)2 D—8706 Computer Science and Applications PAPER—II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective-type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them. 1. Which of the regular expressions corresponds to this grammar ? b B a/aA, A AB/AS, S → → → (A) aa*b+ (B) aa*b (C) (ab)* (D) a(ab)* 2. The proposition p q ~ ∨ is equivalent to : (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. The number of edges in a complete graph with N vertices is equal to : (A) N (N−1) (B) 2N−1 (C) N−1 (D) N(N−1)/2 4. Which of the following is not true ? (A) (B) B ~ A B A ∩ = − (C) (D) 5. If (a2−b2) is a prime number where a and b N, then : (A) a2−b2=3 (B) a2−b2=a−b (C) a2−b2=a+b (D) a2−b2=5 6. The hexadecimal equivalent of (10111)2×(1110)2 is : (A) 150 (B) 241 (C) 142 (D) 101011110 7. An example of a self complementing code is : (A) 8421 code (B) Gray code (C) Excess-3 code (D) 7421 code 8. A sum of products expression can be implemented with __________ logic gates. (A) AND − OR (B) NAND − OR (C) AND − NOT (D) OR − AND 9. The characteristic equation of the D flip-flop is : (A) (B) Q=D (C) Q=1 (D) Q=03 P.T.O. D—8706 10. Which of the following logic is the fastest ? (A) RTL (B) ECL (C) HTL (D) HCL 11. When a function is recursively called, all automatic variables : (A) are initialized during each execution of the function (B) are retained from the last execution (C) are maintained in a stack (D) are ignored 12. Enumeration variables can be used in : (A) search statement like an integer variable (B) break statement (C) preprocessor commands (D) function statement 13. int arr[ ]={1, 2, 3, 4} int count; incr( ) {return ++count;} main( ) { arr[count++]=incr( ); printf(“arr[count]=%d\n”, arr[count]); }The value printed by the above program is : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 14. When one-dimensional character array of unspecified length is assigned an initial value : (A) an arbitrary character is automatically added to the end of the string (B) ‘o’ is added to the end of the string (C) length of the string is added to the end of the string (D) ‘end’ is added to the end of the string 15. The declaration “unsigned u” indicates : (A) u is an unsigned character (B) u is an unsigned integer (C) u is a character (D) u is a string4 D—8706 16. Which possibility among the following is invalid in case of a Data Flow Diagram ? (A) A process having in-bound data flows more than out-bound data flows (B) A data flow between two processes (C) A data flow between two data stores (D) A data store having more than one in-bound data flows 17. In DBMS, deferred update means : (A) All the updates are done first but the entries are made in the log file later (B) All the log files entries are made first but the actual updates are done later (C) Every update is done first followed by a writing on the log file (D) Changes in the views are deferred till a query asks for a view 18. Which statement is false regarding data independence ? (A) Hierarchical data model suffers from data independence (B) Network model suffers from data independence (C) Relational model suffers only from logical data independence (D) Relational model suffers only from physical data independence 19. Which of the following tools is not required during system analysis phase of system development life cycle ? (A) Case tool (B) RAD tool (C) Reverse engineering (D) None of these 20. Two phase protocol in a database management system is : (A) a concurrency mechanism that is not deadlock free (B) a recovery protocol used for restoring a database after a crash (C) Any update to the system log done in 2-phases (D) not effective in Database 21. Which algorithm has same average, worst case and best case time ? (A) Binary search (B) Maximum of n number (C) Quick sort (D) Fibonacci search 22. Binary search tree is an example of : (A) Divide and conquer technique (B) Greedy algorithm (C) Back tracking (D) Dynamic Programming 23. What is the time required to insert an element in a stack with linked implementation ? (A) O (log2n) (B) O (n) (C) O (n log2n) (D) O (1)5 P.T.O. D—8706 24. The equivalent postfix expression for f) (e d + +b*c : (A) defbc/++* (B) def+/bc+* (C) def+/bc *+ (D) None of these 25. Which one of the following is a physical data structure ? (A) Array (B) Linked lists (C) Stacks (D) Tables 26. How many DS1 signals are transported on a DS3 signal ? (A) 24 (B) 672 (C) 14 (D) 28 27. A 10 BASE-2 network is limited to : (A) 20 bytes per data field (B) 30 stations per segment (C) 40 segments (D) 50 feet of cable 28. The network 198.78.41.0 is a : (A) Class A Network (B) Class B Network (C) Class C Network (D) Class D Network 29. The subnet mask 255.255.255.192 (A) Extends the network portion to 16 bits (B) Extends the network portion to 26 bits (C) Extends the network portion to 36 bits (D) Has no effect on the network portion of an IP address 30. The LAPB frame structure and the frame structure of SDLC are : (A) Opposite (B) Identical (C) Reversed (D) Non-identical 31. Linking : (A) cannot be performed before relocation (B) cannot be performed after relocation (C) can be performed both before and after relocation (D) is not required if relocation is performed 32. Which of the following is the most general phase-structured grammar ? (A) Regular (B) Context-sensitive (C) Context free (D) Syntax tree6 D—8706 33. A compiler for a high level language that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine is called : (A) Optimizing (B) One pass compiler (C) Cross compiler (D) Multipass compiler 34. The ‘K’ in LR (R) cannot be : (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these 35. Peer-hole optimization is a form of : (A) loop optimization (B) local optimization (C) constant folding (D) data flow analysis 36. An operating system is : (A) Collection of hardware components (B) Collection of input-output devices (C) Collection of software routines (D) All the above 37. ____________ is one of pre-emptive scheduling algorithm. (A) Shortest-Job-first (B) Round-robin (C) Priority based (D) Shortest-Job-next 38. A software to create a Job Queue is called ____________ . (A) Linkage editor (B) Interpreter (C) Driver (D) Spooler 39. A permanent database of a general model of compiler is ____________ . (A) Identifier table (B) Page map table (C) Literal table (D) Terminal table 40. Loading operating system from secondary memory to primary memory is called ____________ . (A) Compiling (B) Booting (C) Refreshing (D) Reassembling 41. Software Cost Performance index (CPI) is given by : (A) ACWP BCWP (B) (C) BCWP−ACWP (D) BCWP−BCWS Where : BCWP stands for Budgeted Cost of Work Performed BCWS stands for Budget Cost of Work Scheduled ACWP stands for Actual Cost of Work Performed7 P.T.O. D—8706 42. Software Risk estimation involves following two tasks : (A) risk magnitude and risk impact (B) risk probability and risk impact (C) risk maintenance and risk impact (D) risk development and risk impact 43. In a object oriented software design, ‘Inheritance’ is a kind of __________ . (A) relationship (B) module (C) testing (D) optimization 44. Reliability of software is directly dependent on : (A) quality of the design (B) number of errors present (C) software engineer’s experience (D) user requirement 45. ‘Abstraction’ is ____________ step of Attribute in a software design. (A) First (B) Final (C) Last (D) Middle 46. The frequency band allocated for the downlink in GSM is : (A) 960 -985 MHz (B) 935 -960 MHz (C) 920 -945 MHz (D) 930 -955 MHz 47. Which of the following is an EDI standard ? (A) ANSI X.15 (B) ANSI X.14 (C) ANSI X.13 (D) ANSI X.12 48. An INT file in Windows 95 is : (A) a program file (B) a message file (C) a text file (D) link file 49. Link analysis operation in data mining uses ___________ technique. (A) Classification (B) Association discovery (C) Visualisation (D) Neural clustering 50. The maximum size of SMS in IS-95 is ______ octets. (A) 120 (B) 95 (C) 128 (D) 64 -o 0 o -8 D—8706 Space For Rough Work