IBPS Clerical Mock Test 2

Directions (Q.1-3): Following questions are based on the letter-number sequence given below:

S E 5 7 J I B K X 3 8 Q D 2 P G R I Z N 9 A W L 6 H V 4 M Y

1) Which of the following will be sixth to the right of the fifteenth from the right end?


S E 5 7 J I B K X 3 8 Q D 2 P G R I Z N 9 A W L 6 H V 4 M Y

2) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series with reference to their position in the above sequence?

5I, K8, 2R, ?, ME


S E 5 7 J I B K X 3 8 Q D 2 P G R I Z N 9 A W L 6 H V 4 M Y

3) Which of the following will be exactly midway between the seventh letter from the left and fourth letter from the right end?


4) Rohit walks Southwards then takes a right turn then a left turn. In which direction is he walking now.


5) Ankit starts walking towards east. After 30mts, he turns left and covers 40mts. Then again he turns left and walk for 50mts. Again he turns towards left and covers 50mts. How far is he from the starting point?


6) Rohit is walking towards east. In which series should he turn so that he starts walking in south direction?


7) If the first half of the alphabet series is reversed, which alphabet will be 4th to left of 10th from right?


Direction (8-11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Five persons are sitting around dinning table K, L, M, N, and O. K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K.

8) How is L related to O?


Five persons are sitting around dinning table K, L, M, N, and O. K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K.

9) How is K related to O?


Five persons are sitting around dinning table K, L, M, N, and O. K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K.

10) How is N related to L?


Five persons are sitting around dinning table K, L, M, N, and O. K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K.

11) How is M related to L?


12) Introducing a man, a woman said, “His father-in-law’s father is my father-in-law”. How is the man related the women?


Directions (13-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on them:

(I) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members, three are male members.

(II) There are two married couples among them.

(III) R is the father of P and T is the mother of R.

(IV) P is the grand daughter of Q

(V) S is son of R

13) Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?


(I) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members, three are male members.

(II) There are two married couples among them.

(III) R is the father of P and T is the mother of R.

(IV) P is the grand daughter of Q

(V) S is son of R

14) How Q is related to U?


15) Select the related pair of words:

Theft : Burglary : : ?


16) A woman said to a man, “The sister of your only brother is my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?


17) A+B’ means ‘A is the father of B, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ ‘A?B, means ‘A is the brother of B’ ‘A ?B’. means ‘A is the mother of B, and ‘A =B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ on the basis of this information. What does P + Q – R means?


19) “Zoology” is related to “Animal” in the same way as “Botany” is related to ?


Directions (Q. 20-27): In each question below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

20) Statements: No stapler is a radio, No book is a radio, Some books are buckets.

Conclusions: I. Some staplers are books. II. Some staplers are not books.

III. Some buckets are radios. IV. Some buckets are not radios.


21) Statements: Some trunks are staplers, No stapler is a book, Some boxes are books.

Conclusions: I. No book is a trunk. II. Some trunks are not books.

III. No book is a stapler. IV. No boxes are staplers.


22) Statements: Some books are boxes, Some toys are books, Some toys are pens.

Conclusions: I. Some pens are toys. II. Some pens are books.

III. Some toys are boxes. IV. Some books are not pens.


23) Statements: Some shirts are keys, Some cassettes are locks, All keys are cassettes.

Conclusions: I. Some keys are locks. II. Some shirts are locks.

III. Some shirts are cassettes. IV. Some keys are not locks.


24) Statements: All dishonests are marplots, No queen is a dishonest, All kings are queen.

Conclusions: I. Some marplots are kings. II. Some marplots are not kings.

III. Some dishonests are marplots. IV. All kings are dishonests.


25) Statements: All apples are oranges, Some oranges are sweet, No fruit is sweet.

Conclusions: I. Some oranges are not fruits. II. Some apples are not fruits.

III. Some apples are fruits. IV. Some fruits are oranges.


26) Statements: All animals are four-footed, All birds are files, Some animals are birds.

Conclusions: I. All animals are files. II. Some animal are files.

III. Some birds are four-footed. IV. All birds are four-footed.


27) Statements: All farmers are Indians, All patriots have credit card of SBI, All Indians are patriots.

Conclusions: I. Some farmers have credit card of SBI.

II. All Indians have credit card of SBI.

III. All farmers are patriots. IV. Only patriots are farmers.


28) The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s father) of R, S is the daughter of N and sister of B, on the basis of this information. How is M related to B.


29) A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. To establish a relationship between B and C, which of the following information is required?

(I) Sex of C (II) Sex of B


Directions (Questions 30 to 32): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

30. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?

I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.

II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.


31. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?

I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.

II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book before it reached E.


32. Who is maternal uncle of Pavan?

I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother of Smrithi.

II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mother of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.


(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.

(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.

(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E

(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

34. Which of the following statements is true?


Directions (questions 33 to 35): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.

(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.

(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E

(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

33. Which of the following statements may be false?


18) On the basis of the information given in question 17, what does P x Q / R means?


35. Who is at the extreme right?


NUMERICAL ABILITY

41) The unit digit in the product (784 x 618 x 917 x 463) is


42) What is the unit digit in (795 – 358)?


43) 3251 + 587 + 369 - ? = 3007


44) (800 ? 64) x (1296 ? 36) =?


47) 217 x 217 + 183 x 183 =?


48) {(476 + 424)2 – 4 x 476 x 424} =?


46)

9

3

4

7

2

17

9

1

15

?









50) Which of the following no. is exactly divisibly 11?


51) 527924 - 527516 = 3532 - ?




54) 48.24 ÷ 2.01 = ?


55) ?% of 56 = 10.08



57) 6% of 380 + 40% of 6.8 =?


58) 1 1 1 ?

---- of --- of --- of --- of 180 = 1

3 5 8 3


59) 950

11.45 x ------ = ?

38


60) 1092

5.2 x ------ = 135.2

?



62) 195 x 37 – 37 = ?


63) If it takes A four days to dig a certain ditch, whereas B can dig it in 8 days and A, B, C together can

dig it in days, how long C alone would take to dig it?



65) The amount of Re 1 in 5 years at a certain rate of simple interest is Rs. 1.25. What should be the amount of Rs. 600/- in two years?


66) The area of a square is 2.25 cm2. What is its perimeter?


67) If the cost price of 24 articles is equal to the selling price of 21 articles,

what is the percentage gain or loss?



69) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

1.7 3.2 2.7 4.2 3.7 ? 4.7 6.2


70) A and B started towards each other all the same time from places 114 kms. Apart and met in 8 hours. If A’s rated was 6 kms an hour, what was B’s?



72) A company sells the T.V at 75,000/ at a gain of 50%. For how much should the T.V be sold so that the company gains 70%?


73) If x = 3.2 and y = 4, what is the value of

5x + 4y + 3 (x / y) ?


74) The number of voters in town A is 17,640 and in town B is 19,320. What is the ratio of voters from town A to that in B?


81 2

75) If 9% of number is -----, what is --- of that number?

200 7


76) By what percent approximately did the production of wheat increase from the year1995-96 to ‘96-97?


77) What was the average production of oilseeds during the given years (In million tonnes?


78) The production of rice in 1994-95 was approximately what percent of production of oilseeds in the year 1996-97?


79) In which of the given years the production of pulses was close to its average production over the years?


80) The total production of coarse cereals and oilseeds in 1995-96 was approximately what percent of the production of wheat in that year?

1) 120% 2) 80% 3) 115% 4) 85% 5) 95%


The rest of the pasage is in next question

THE REST OF THE PASSAGE CAN BE READ IN NEXT QUESTION. (SPACE CONSTRAINT)



83) Why did the white elephant’s mother never receive the fruits sent by her son?


84) Why was the forester terrified and crying for help in the forest?


85) Why did the white elephant collect food for his mother daily?


86) Why did the white elephant not put up a struggle against the King’s soldiers?


87) Why was the white elephant upset to see the forester alongwith the King’s soldiers?


The forester could never go back to Benaras from the forest.

2) The white elephant’s herd members were cooperative and honest.

3) The forester ultimately became a good friend of the white elephant.

4) The while elephant’s mother was finally left alone in the forest.

5) None is true

88) Why was the white elephant unhappy and refused to eat in the King’s palace?


89) Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?


90) Which of the following best describes, the King as mentioned in the passage?


Directions (Q. 91-93): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

91. DISAPPEARD


Directions (Q. 91-93): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

92. SPOTTED


Directions (Q. 91-93): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

93. STRUGGLE


Directions (Q. 94-95): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

94) FEEBLE


Directions (Q. 94-95): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

95) EDGE


Directions (Q. 96-100): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below of each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer

96) If you would have taken the medicine, you could have gone to school today.


Directions (Q. 96-100): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below of each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer

97) Earning lots of money is one of the desires which are never satisfied.


Directions (Q. 96-100): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below of each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer

98) The passage was so difficult that I could not comprehended it in the first reading.


Directions (Q. 96-100): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below of each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer

99) Besides his wife, his children and other relatives also attends the function


Directions (Q. 96-100): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below of each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer

100) Good leaders are always attentive towards his subordinates’ needs.


Directions (Q. 101-105): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

101) He was unable a) to give a satisfactory b) explanation for his absence c) from the meeting. d) All correct e)


Directions (Q. 101-105): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

102) Much a) countries are starting to turn b) their attention c) to new sources d) of energy. All correct e)


Directions (Q. 101-105): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

103) As the ship was sinking a) fast, the captain b) gave orders to abandon c) it immediately. d) All correct e)


Directions (Q. 101-105): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

104) The council a) denied having any hand b) in the recently c) unearthed scandle. d) All correct e)


Directions (Q. 101-105): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

105) Their a) has been a series of abductions b) of young children c) of the schools in the area. d) All correct e)


Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrangement the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The man immediately got off the car, slapped a young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so?

B) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.

C) The driver stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.

D) A man was driving down a highway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.

E) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.

F) The boy was in teas and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

106) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?


Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrangement the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The man immediately got off the car, slapped a young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so?

B) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.

C) The driver stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.

D) A man was driving down a highway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.

E) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.

F) The boy was in teas and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

107) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) F 5) E


Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrangement the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The man immediately got off the car, slapped a young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so?

B) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.

C) The driver stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.

D) A man was driving down a highway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.

E) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.

F) The boy was in teas and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

108) Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?


Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrangement the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The man immediately got off the car, slapped a young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so?

B) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.

C) The driver stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.

D) A man was driving down a highway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.

E) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.

F) The boy was in teas and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

109) Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?


Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrangement the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The man immediately got off the car, slapped a young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so?

B) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.

C) The driver stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.

D) A man was driving down a highway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.

E) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.

F) The boy was in teas and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

110) Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

111. Hostility between the (a)/ two groups have (b)/ increased in the (c)/ past few months. (d)/ No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

112. Her class is very special (a)/ because it has children (b)/ with many different (c)/ abilities and skills. (d) No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

113. Many peoples were (a)/ brought to safety (b) by the army helicopters (c)/ from the flood hit area. (d) No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

114. It is difficult to (a)/ understand the problems (b) that the physically challenged people (c)/ encounters in their daily life. (d)/No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

115. I had gone only a little way (a)/ down the street (b)/ when I realised that (c)/ had not lock the door. (d) No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

116. Mammoths were a (a)/ species of elephants (b)/ who lived millions of years ago (c)/ but are now extinct. (d)/ No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

117. The sink is (a)/ so dirty that (b)/ one needs a very strong (c)/ abrasive to cleaning it. (d)/No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

118. The talks ended (a)/ abruptly when one of (b) the delegate walked (c)/ out in protest. (d)/ No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

119. A twenty year old (a)/ absconder was caught (b) in a local restaurant (c)/ this morning. (d)/No error (e)


Directions (Q. 111 -120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

120. If she will secure more than (a)/ 90% marks in the exams (b)/ I will give her (c)/ a suitable reward. (d)/ No error (e)


GENERAL AWARENESS TEST

121) The rate on which banks borrow from the RBI is called –


122) _______, on July 25, 2011, defeated Paraguay to win a record 15th Cope America, breaking its all-time Copa title tie of 14 which it held with Argentina.


123) Which of the following will be the venue of the India – ASEAN Summit to be held in 2012 ?


124) As we know the RBI is the apex bank; of India, similarly the apex Bank of USA is called?


125) As per the newspaper reports the Standards & Poors (S & P) has changed India’s sovereign rating from ‘Negative’ to ‘Stable’. This means –

A) India’s economic condition has improved a lot.

B) There is no pressure of inflation on the economy as it is well under control.

C) India’s economic condition has further gone down as it has failed to control


126) A per the data released in New Delhi on July 1, 2011, exports registered an impressive _____ per cent growth at $25.94 billion in May 2011 as compared to $16.53 billion in May 2010.


127) As per the recent reports published in various newspapers the core infrastructure industries registered a 5.3% growth in the month of May 2011. This figure does not include the performance of which one of the following industries as it is not a core industry ?


128) Who amongst the following has taken over as the new Chief of the Air Forces in July 2011?


129) India achieved tenth rank in export of services worldwide, while emerged as the _____ biggest merchandise exporter in 2010, as per the WTO Trade Report 2011 in July 2011.


130) Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2010?


131) As reported in various financial newspapers the Government of India is planning to link the prices of diesel and petrol to market prices and may also introduce a graded system of sharing subsidy. If it is done this will be in order to implement the recommendation of which of the following committees?


132) Which of the following Schemes of the Government of India is planned to help farmers by providing a competitive price to their produce?

A) Minimum support price of agro products

B) Creating buffer stock of food grains

C) Making loans available to them on special and subsidized rates of interest


133) Which of the following norms / practice adopted by the banks is /are launched to ensure that the money from illegal activities / sources does / do not come to banks and therefore the economic health of the nation does not get affected?

A) Know Your Customer B) Financial inclusion

C) Branchless Banking


134) As a practice all banks now deduct some amount from their pretax income and set aside in a separate account to create a cushion for the loans which may go bad. This is called –


135) As we know many Indian Banks are opening their branches in foreign countries these days. What in your opinion is /are the reasons owing to which these banks are willing to open branches in foreign countries?

A) India has the largest network of bank branches in the world. Hence other nations also wish to take advantage of their services.

B) Indian Banks get an opportunity to raise foreign currency funds and also the experience funding joint ventures of multinationals. This prompts them to open their branches in foreign nations.

C) As many foreign banks are functioning in India, India in turn is also required to open equal number countries. Hence Indian banks are opening branches in these countries.


136) India’s Ambassador to ____ Talmiz Ahmad, on July 10, 2011, became the first Indian diplomat to be conferred the King Abdulaziz Medal of First Class.


137) As per the ‘World Investment Report 2011’, released by UNCTAD on July 26, 2011. India stood at – place in the list of countries that attracted the highest FDI in 2010.


138) Which of the following crops need plenty of water to grow?


139) Which of the following is/are true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?


140) Petra Kvitova, in July 2011, beat Maria Sharapova to win the Wimbledon women’s singles title, becoming the third – player to do so at the Championship.


141) Government of India recently approved the national policy on Bio fuels. Which of the following crops is one which is used to make bio-fuels?


142) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of milk in the world?


143) Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Hockey?


144) Saina Nehwal is a famous –


145) Who amongst the following is associated with music and is a maestro of international repute?


146) India is providing help to which of the following nations in setting up a Medical College there on the lines of the AIIMS?


147) Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the company which produces chemical fertilizers in India?


148) Which of the following is NOT a foodgrain?


149) As we know Government is paying much attention towards the development of watersheds and water bodies in all the areas of the country. What is/are the reasons owing to which Govt. has to take these special efforts to develop/recharge watersheds and water bodies?

A) The one single biggest problem of the agriculture in the country is inappropriate irrigation facilities and farmers’ overdependence on the monsoon. Govt. wants farmers to come out of it.

B) The water table in some of the areas in the country is going down. This is a matter of great concern for all of us as this may result in severe water problem’ in days to come, Government is serious about it.

C) Around 30 to 35 percent watersheds/ water bodies in the country are not being utilized as the quality of the water in these has deteriorated over the years


150) Which of the following is /are true about the Indira Awas Yojana?

A) The scheme provides financial assistance to people living below poverty line for construction of housing units.

B) Every family gets an assistance of Rs. 3 lakhs for construction of new housing unit and upto Rs. 2 lakhs for upgradation of old/existing units.

C) Scheme is available only to those who are staying in any village’ or urban areas having a population of 50000 or more.


151) The head office of the World Trade Organisation is located in –


152) Who amongst the following is/was NOT a famous writer of English Language?


153) Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports?


154) Which of the following trophies/cups is associated with game of Cricket ?


155) The Union Cabinet, on July 7, 2011, gave its formal approval for increasing the annual funding under the MPLADS from Rs. 2 crore to Rs. ____ crore per MP from the current financial year.


156) The Conference of the Speakers and presiding officers of the commonwealth countries was organized recently in –


157) _______ Indian companies made the cut in the list of world’s 500 largest companies compiled by Fortune magazine in July 2011.


158) India’s PSLV-C17, launched from Sriharikota on July 15, 2011, put the communication satellite – in a perfect orbit.


159) As per the “Education for All Global Monitoring Report”, released by the UNO, over half of the total illiterate population of the world lives in just four countries. Which of the following is NOT one of these four?


160) Which of the following is/are correct about the Rajiv Gandhi Gramin LPG Vitrak Yojana?

A) Women/men in the age group of 21-45 years will be stake-holders.

B) All stakeholders will earn Rs. 15000 to Rs. 20000 per month as their income.

C) LPG will be Supplied through a pipeline from the nearest depo to the filling station which will be common for a constellation of 4 to 5 villages.


COMPUTER / MARKETING

161) Passwords enable users to


162) When sending an e-mail, the ____ line describes are contents of the message


163) A(n) ____ is a program that makes the computer easier to use.


164) The ____ tells the computer how to use its components.


165) A ____ is a named set of characters that have the same characteristics.


166) Name the fourth layer of OSI Model.


167) A _____pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.


168) Personal computers can be connected together to form a


169) Which elements of a Word document can be displayed in colour ?


170) A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)____


171) To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is______


172) During the _____ portion of the Information Processing Cycle, the computer acquires data from some source.


173) The ______ of software contains lists of commands and options


174) A ____ can make it easier to play games.


175) How many different documents can you have open at any one time?


176) To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you press the _____ key.


177) Something which can be easily-understood by the user is said to be


178) What is output?


179) A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called _____


180) Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ?


181) You can keep your personal files / folders in _______.


182) The primary purpose of software is to turn data into _______


183) A directory within a directory is called ____


184) A compiler translates a program within in a high-level language into –


185) When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test –


186) A ______ is a unique name that you give to a file of information


187) Hardware includes ______


188) A ______ contains specifics rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm


189) All the deleted files go to –


190) The stimulataneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is –


191) The secret code that restricts entry to some programs


192) Computers use the ______ number system to store data and perform calculations –


193) The main function of the ALU is to –


194) ________ is the process of carrying out commands.


195) Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy?

a) The physical parts of the computer

b) The printed parts of the computer

c) The printed output d) THE physical output devices

e) None of these


196) A(n) ______ is a program that makes the Computer easier to use


197) A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)–


198) Computer systems are comprised of –


199) An error in a computer programme –


200) ISDN stands for ______________.

a) Integrated Services Dual Network

b) Integrated Services Dynamic Network

c) Integrated System Divide Network

d) Integrated Services Digital Network

e) None of these








































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































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IBPS has recently decided that the clerical entrance test scheduled to be held in the month of December will be conducted online. So we are uploading a test for hands on experience.
Best wishes
Gyanm College of competitions
Sco. 13,14,15
Sector-34 A
Chandigarh

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